Test 9 ecology. Administrative control test in the discipline “Ecology” for first-year students. Basic living environments

Tasks and exercises for school course general ecology

Part 1. GENERAL ECOLOGY

Introduction. Ecology as a science

1. Ecology is:

a) the science of human relationships with the environment;
b) the science of the relationship of living organisms with the environment;
c) nature;
d) protection and rational use of natural resources.

(Answer: b . )

a) C. Darwin;
b) A. Tansley;
c) E. Haeckel;
d) K. Linnaeus.

(Answer: V . )

3. Based on the definition of ecology, determine which statements are correct:

a) “Our area has a bad environment”;
b) “The ecology in our places is spoiled”;
c) “The environment must be protected”;
d) “Ecology is the basis of environmental management”;
e) “Ecology – human health”;
f) “Our environment has become worse”;
g) “Ecology is a science.”

(Answer: g and f . )

Chapter 1. Organism and environment.
Potential reproduction capabilities of organisms

1. Arrange the named tree species in increasing order of the number of seeds they produce per year: pedunculate oak, silver birch, coconut palm. How does the size of the seeds (fruits) change in the row of trees you lined up?
(Answer: coconut palm - pedunculate oak - silver birch. The larger the seeds, the less the tree produces per unit of time.)

2. Arrange the named animal species in order of increasing fertility: chimpanzee, pig, common pike, lake frog. Explain why females of some species bring 1–2 cubs at a time, while others bring several hundred thousand.
(Answer: chimpanzee - pig - lake frog - common pike. Species in which females bear relatively fewer offspring at a time exhibit greater parental care and lower offspring mortality.)

4*. Bacteria can multiply very quickly. Every half hour, two cells are formed by division from one cell. If one bacterium is placed in ideal conditions with an abundance of food, then per day its offspring should amount to 248 = 281474976710 700 cells. This amount of bacteria will fill a 0.25-liter glass. How long does it take for bacteria to occupy a volume of 0.5 liters?

a) one day;
b) two days;
c) one hour;
d) half an hour.

(Answer: G . )

5*. Plot a graph of the increase in the number of house mice over 8 months in one barn. The initial number was two individuals (male and female). It is known that, under favorable conditions, a pair of mice gives birth to 6 mice every 2 months. Two months after birth, the pups become sexually mature and begin to reproduce. The ratio of males and females in the offspring is 1:1.
(Answer: if we plot the time in months along the X axis, and the number of individuals along the Y axis, then the coordinates are (x, y), etc. consecutive points on the graph will be: (0, 2), (1, 8), (2, 14), (3, 38), (4, 80).)

6*. Read the following descriptions of the breeding habits of some fish species of approximately the same size. Based on these data, make a conclusion about the fertility of each species and compare the names of the species with the number of eggs laid by fish: 10,000,000, 500,000, 3,000, 300, 20, 10. Why is there a decline in fertility in the series of fish species you have lined up?

Far Eastern salmon chum salmon lays relatively large eggs in a specially dug hole at the bottom of the river and covers it with pebbles. Fertilization in these fish is external.
Cod lays small eggs floating in the water column. This kind of caviar is called pelagic. Fertilization in cod is external.
African tilapia (from perciformes) they collect laid and fertilized eggs into the oral cavity, in which they incubate them until the young hatch. The fish do not feed at this time. Fertilization in tilapia is external.
In small cat sharks Fertilization is internal; they lay large eggs, covered with a horny capsule and rich in yolk. Sharks camouflage them in secluded places and protect them for some time.
U Katranov , or spiny sharks living in the Black Sea also undergo internal fertilization, but their embryos develop not in water, but in the reproductive tract of females. Development occurs due to the nutritional reserves of the egg. Katrans give birth to mature cubs capable of independent life.
Common pike lays small eggs on aquatic plants. Fertilization in pikes is external.

(Answer: 10,000,000 – cod, 500,000 – common pike, 3,000 – chum salmon, 300 – tilapia, 20 – cat shark, 10 – katran. The fertility of a species depends on the mortality rate of the individuals that make up this species. The higher the mortality rate, the higher the fertility, as a rule. In those species that care little about the survival of their descendants, the mortality rate is quite high. And as compensation, fertility increases. An increase in the degree of care for offspring leads to a relative decrease in the fertility of the species.)

7*. Why does man primarily breed only representatives of the order Galliformes and Anseriformes from birds? It is known that in terms of the quality of meat, growth rate, size, and degree of adaptation to humans, they are not inferior to bustards, little bustards, waders, or pigeons.
(Answer: Representatives of Galliformes and, to a lesser extent, Anseriformes have very high fertility. On average, a clutch of chicken birds contains 10–12, and in some species (quail) up to 20 eggs. In masonry different types Anseriformes have an average of 6–8 eggs. At the same time, pigeons and bustards have no more than 2 eggs in their clutch, and waders have no more than 4 eggs.)

8*. If any species is capable of unlimited growth in numbers, why do rare and endangered organisms exist?

(Answer: Limiting factors are to blame for this. Their action overrides the species’ ability to restore and increase its numbers. Man, through his activities, favors the strengthening of various limiting factors that reduce the number of species.)

General laws of dependence of organisms on environmental factors

2. Choose the correct definition of the limiting factor law:

a) the optimal value of the factor is most important for the body;
b) of all the factors acting on the body, the most important is the one whose value deviates the most from the optimal;
c) of all the factors acting on the body, the most important is the one whose value deviates least from the optimal one.

(Answer: b . )

3. Select a factor that can be considered limiting in the proposed conditions.

1. For plants in the ocean at a depth of 6000 m: water, temperature, carbon dioxide, water salinity, light.
2. For plants in the desert in summer: temperature, light, water.
3. For a starling in winter in a forest near Moscow: temperature, food, oxygen, air humidity, light.
4. For river pike in the Black Sea: temperature, light, food, water salinity, oxygen.
5. For wild boar in winter in the northern taiga: temperature; light; oxygen; air humidity; snow depth.

(Answer: 1 – light; 2 – water; 3 – food; 4 – water salinity; 5 – depth of snow cover.)

4. Of the listed substances, it is most likely to limit the growth of wheat in the field:

a) carbon dioxide;
b) oxygen;
c) helium;
d) potassium ions;
e) nitrogen gas.

(Answer: G . )

5*. Can one factor completely compensate for the effect of another factor?

(Answer: completely never, partially maybe.)

The main ways of adaptation of organisms to the environment

1. Three main ways organisms adapt to unfavorable environmental conditions: submission, resistance and avoidance of these conditions. Which method can be classified as:

a) autumn migrations of birds from northern nesting areas to southern wintering areas;
b) winter hibernation of brown bears;
c) the active life of polar owls in winter at a temperature of minus 40 °C;
d) the transition of bacteria into a state of spores when the temperature decreases;
e) heating the camel's body during the day from 37 °C to 41 °C and cooling it down to 35 °C by morning;
f) a person is in a bathhouse at a temperature of 100 °C, while his internal temperature remains the same - 36.6 °C;
g) cacti surviving heat of 80 °C in the desert;
h) do hazel grouse survive severe frosts in thick snow?

(Answer: avoidance – a, h; submission – b, d, d; resistance - c, e, g.)

2. How do warm-blooded (homeothermic) organisms differ from cold-blooded (poikilothermic) organisms?
(Answer: Warm-blooded organisms differ from cold-blooded organisms in that they have a high (usually above 34 ° C) and constant (usually fluctuating within one or two degrees) body temperature.)

3. Of the listed organisms, homeothermic ones include:

A ) river perch;
b) lake frog;
c) common dolphin;
d) freshwater hydra;
e) Scots pine;
f) city swallow;
g) ciliate-slipper;
h) red clover;
i) honey bee;
j) boletus mushroom.

(Answer: c, e . )

4. What is the advantage of homeothermy over poikilothermy?
(Answer: constant internal body temperature allows animals not to be affected by temperature environment; creates conditions for the flow of all bio chemical reactions in cells; allows biochemical reactions to occur at high speed, which increases the activity of organisms.)

5. What are the disadvantages of homeothermy compared to poikilothermy?
(Answer: Homeothermic animals have greater needs for food and water compared to poikilothermic animals.)

6. The body temperature of the arctic fox remains constant (38.6 °C) when the ambient temperature fluctuates in the range from –80 °C to +50 °C. List the devices that help the Arctic fox maintain a constant body temperature.
(Answer: fur, subcutaneous fat, evaporation of water from the surface of the tongue (to cool the body), expansion and contraction of the lumens of skin vessels - physical thermoregulation. Behavior that helps change the temperature conditions of the environment is behavioral thermoregulation. Developed regulation of cellular chemical reactions that produce heat, which occurs on command from a special thermal center in the diencephalon - chemical thermoregulation.)

7. Can bacteria that constantly live in hot springs of geysers at a temperature of 70 ° C and are not able to survive if the temperature of their cells changes by just a few degrees be called warm-blooded organisms?
(Answer: it is impossible, since warm-blooded animals maintain a constantly high internal temperature thanks to the internal heat generated by the body itself. Bacteria living in hot springs use external heat, but since their temperature is always high and constant, they are called false myothermic.)

8. Crossbills build nests and hatch chicks in winter (February). This happens because:

a) crossbills have special adaptations that help them withstand low temperatures;
b) at this time there is a lot of food that adult birds and chicks eat;
c) they need to have time to hatch the chicks before the arrival of their main competitors - birds from the southern regions.
(Answer: b. The main food of crossbills is coniferous seeds. They ripen in late winter - early spring.)

9*. What birds a few decades ago from the middle and northern latitudes flew south in the fall, and now live all year round in major cities. Explain why this is happening.
(Answer: rooks, mallard ducks. This is due to the fact that the amount of available food in winter has increased: the number of garbage dumps and landfills has increased, and non-freezing reservoirs have appeared.)

10*. Why can dark-colored reptiles be found more often in cold parts of their range than in warm parts? For example, vipers living in the Arctic Circle are predominantly melanistic (black), while in the south they are light-colored.
(Answer: Black absorbs heat to a greater extent than any other color. Dark-colored reptiles heat up faster.)

11. During summer cold snaps, swifts abandon their nests and move south, sometimes hundreds of kilometers. The chicks fall into torpor and are able to remain in this state, without food, for several days. When the weather gets warmer, the parents return. Explain what causes migrations.
(Answer: When it gets colder, the number of flying insects that swifts feed on sharply decreases. The torpor of swift chicks is an adaptation to life in northern countries, where summer cold snaps are observed quite often.)

12*. Why do birds and mammals tolerate low external temperatures more easily than high ones?
(Answer: There are many ways to reduce heat loss, but increasing heat transfer is much more difficult. The main way for this is the evaporation of water from the body. However, in places where high (more than 35 °C) air temperatures are often observed, there is usually a moisture deficit.)

13*. Explain why plants that are predominantly green in color live near the surface of reservoirs, and red in the deep sea.
(Answer: Only short-wave rays: blue and violet penetrate to a depth of several tens and hundreds of meters. To absorb them (with subsequent transfer of energy to chlorophyll molecules), algae have a significant amount of red and yellow pigments. They mask the green color of the chlorophyll, making the plants appear red.)

Basic living environments

1. The fastest moving animals live in the environment:

a) ground-air;
b) underground (soil);
c) water;
d) in living organisms.

2. Name the largest animal that has ever existed (and currently exists) on Earth. What environment does it live in? Why can’t such large animals arise and exist in other habitats?
(Answer: blue whale. In an aquatic environment, the buoyant (Archimedean) force can significantly compensate for the force of gravity.)

3. Explain why in ancient times warriors determined the approach of enemy cavalry by placing their ears to the ground.
(Answer: The conductivity of sound in a dense medium (soil, earth) is higher than in air.)

4. Ichthyologists face significant challenges in preserving deep-sea fish for museums. Raised on the deck of the ship, they literally explode. Explain why this happens.
(Answer: At great ocean depths, colossal pressure is created. To avoid being crushed, organisms living in these conditions must have the same pressure inside their body. When quickly rising to the surface of the ocean, they find themselves “crushed from the inside” . )

5. Explain why deep-sea fish have either reduced or hypertrophied (enlarged) eyes.
(Answer: Very little light penetrates to great depths. Under these conditions, the visual analyzer must either be very sensitive, or it becomes unnecessary - then vision is compensated by other senses: smell, touch, etc.)

6. If you mix water, sand, inorganic and organic fertilizers, will the mixture be soil?
(Answer: no, because the soil must have a certain structure and must contain living things.)

7. Fill in the gaps by choosing one word from the pair in brackets.

(Answer: not threatening, weak, aggressive, have, don't have, don't have, don't have, big.)

8*. In what habitats do animals have the simplest structure of the hearing organ (it is necessary to compare closely related groups of animals)? Why? Does this prove that animals have difficulty hearing in these environments?
(Answer: in soil and water. This is due to the fact that sound conductivity in these dense media is the best. The simple organization of the hearing organs of these animals does not prove that they have poor hearing. Better propagation of a sound wave in a dense environment can compensate for the poor organization of the hearing organs.)

9. Explain why permanently aquatic mammals (whales, dolphins) have much more powerful thermal insulation (subcutaneous fat) than land animals living in harsh and cold conditions. For comparison, the temperature of salt water does not fall below -1.3 ° C, and on the land surface it can drop to -70 ° C.)
(Answer: Water has a significantly higher thermal conductivity and heat capacity than air. A warm object in water will cool (give off heat) much faster than in air.)

10*. In the spring, many people burn last year's withered grass, arguing that fresh grass will grow better. Environmentalists, on the contrary, argue that this cannot be done. Why?
(Answer: The opinion that new grass grows better after it has fallen is due to the fact that young seedlings seem more friendly and green against the black background of the ashes than among withered grass. However, this is nothing more than an illusion. In fact, during the fall, many shoots of young plants become charred and their growth slows down. The fire kills millions of insects and other invertebrates living in the litter and herbaceous layer, and destroys the clutches of birds nesting on the ground. Normally, the organic matter that makes up the withered grass decomposes and gradually passes into the soil. During a fire, they burn and turn into gases that enter the atmosphere. All this disrupts the cycle of elements in a given ecosystem, its natural balance. In addition, burning last year's grass regularly leads to fires: forests, wooden buildings, power and communication line poles burn.)

Ways of influence of organisms on the environment

1. It has rained. A bright hot sun came out from behind a cloud. In which area will the soil moisture content be greater after five hours (soil type is the same): a) on a freshly plowed field; b) in a ripe wheat field; c) in an ungrazed meadow; d) in a grazing meadow? Explain why.
(Answer: V. The thicker vegetation cover, the less the soil heats up and, therefore, the less water will evaporate.)

2. Explain why ravines are more often formed in non-forest natural zones: steppes, semi-deserts, deserts. What human activities lead to the formation of ravines?
(Answer: The root systems of trees and shrubs, to a greater extent than of herbaceous vegetation, retain soil when it is washed away by water flows, therefore, in places where forest and shrub vegetation grow, ravines form less frequently than in fields, steppes and deserts. In the complete absence of vegetation (including grass), any flow of water will cause soil erosion. When vegetation is destroyed by humans (plowing, grazing, construction, etc.), increased soil erosion will always be observed.)

3.* It has been established that in summer, after the heat, more precipitation falls over the forest than over the nearby vast field. Why? Explain the role of the nature of vegetation in shaping the level of aridity in certain areas.
(Answer: above open spaces the air heats up faster and stronger than above a forest. Rising upward, hot air turns raindrops into steam. As a result, when it rains, less water flows over a vast field than over a forest.
Areas with sparse vegetation or no vegetation at all are heated more strongly by the sun's rays, which causes increased evaporation of moisture, and as a result, depletion of groundwater reserves and soil salinization. Hot air rises. If the desert area is large enough, then this can significantly change the direction of air flows. As a result, less precipitation falls on bare areas, which leads to even greater desertification of the territory.)

4.* In some countries and islands the import of live goats is prohibited by law. The authorities motivate this by the fact that goats can harm the country’s nature and change the climate. Explain how this could be.
(Answer: goats eat not only grass, but also leaves and tree bark. Goats are capable of reproducing quickly. Having reached high numbers, they mercilessly destroy trees and shrubs. In countries with insufficient rainfall, this causes further drying of the climate. As a result, nature is impoverished, which negatively affects the country’s economy.)

Adaptive forms of organisms

1.* Why do wingless forms predominate among insects on small oceanic islands, while winged ones predominate on the nearby mainland or large islands?
(Answer: small oceanic islands are blown by strong winds. As a result, all small flying animals that are unable to withstand strong winds are blown into the ocean and die. In the course of evolution, insects living on small islands have lost the ability to fly.)

Adaptive rhythms of life

1. List the abiotic environmental factors known to you, the values ​​of which change periodically and regularly over time.
(Answer: illumination during the day, illumination throughout the year, temperature during the day, temperature throughout the year, humidity throughout the year and others.)

2. Select from the list those habitats in which animals do not have circadian rhythms (provided that they live only within one specific environment): lake, river, cave waters, soil surface, ocean floor at a depth of 6000 m, mountains, human intestines , forest, air, soil at a depth of 1.5 m, river bottom at a depth of 10 m, bark of a living tree, soil at a depth of 10 cm.
(Answer: waters of caves, ocean bottom, soil at a depth of 1.5 m.)

3. In what month do chinstrap Adélie penguins usually give birth in European zoos - May, June, October or February? Explain your answer.
(Answer: in October - in the Southern Hemisphere at this time it is spring.)

4. Why did the experiment with the acclimatization of the South American llama in the Tien Shan mountains (where the climate is similar to the usual conditions of the animal’s native places) end in failure?
(Answer: discrepancy between annual cycles - young animals were born in a new habitat in the fall (in the homeland of animals at this time it is spring) and died in the cold winter from lack of food.)

CHAPTER 2. COMMUNITIES AND POPULATIONS Types of interactions between organisms

2. From the proposed list, make pairs of organisms that in nature can be in mutualistic (mutually beneficial) relationships with each other (the names of organisms can be used only once): bee, boletus mushroom, sea anemone, oak, birch, hermit crab, aspen, jay, clover , boletus mushroom, linden, nodule nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
(Answer: bee - linden; boletus mushroom - birch; sea ​​anemone - hermit crab; oak - jay; boletus mushroom – aspen; clover is a nodule nitrogen-fixing bacteria.)

3. From the proposed list, make pairs of organisms between which trophic (food) connections can form in nature (the names of organisms can be used only once): heron, willow, aphid, amoeba, brown hare, ant, aquatic bacteria, wild boar, frog, currant , sundew, antlion, mosquito, tiger.
(Answer: heron - frog; hare - willow; aphid - currant; amoeba – aquatic bacteria; antlion - ant; tiger - boar; sundew - mosquito.)

4. Lichens are an example of biotic relationships:

(Answer: A.)

5. Pairs of organisms cannot serve as an example of a “predator-prey” relationship (choose the correct answer):

a) pike and crucian carp;
b) lion and zebra;
c) freshwater amoeba and bacteria;
d) antlion and ant;
d) jackal and vulture.

(Answer: d.)

6.

A. The interaction of two or more individuals, the consequences of which are negative for some and indifferent for others.
B. Interaction of two or more individuals, in which some use the leftover food of others without harming them.
B. Mutually beneficial interaction between two or more individuals.
D. Interaction of two or more individuals, in which some provide shelter to others, and this does not bring harm or benefit to the owner.
D. Cohabitation of two individuals that do not directly interact with each other.
E. The interaction of two or more individuals that have similar needs for the same limited resources, which leads to a decrease in the vital signs of the interacting individuals.
G. The interaction of two or more organisms, in which some feed on the living tissues or cells of others and receive from them a place of permanent or temporary habitat.
H. The interaction of two or more individuals, in which some eat others.

(Answer: 1 – B; 2 – D; 3 – E; 4 – A; 5 – G; 6 – B; 7 – F; 8 – Z.)

7. Why do you think advanced technologies for planting trees in poor soil involve contaminating the soil with certain types of fungi?
(Answer: A symbiotic relationship is formed between these fungi and the tree. Mushrooms quickly form a very branched mycelium and entwine tree roots with their hyphae. Thanks to this, the plant receives water and mineral salts from a huge area of ​​soil surface. To achieve such an effect without mycelium, the tree would have to spend a lot of time, matter and energy on the formation of such an extensive root system. When planting in a new place, symbiosis with the fungus significantly increases the chances of the tree to take root safely.)

8.* Name the organisms that are human symbionts. What role do they play?
(Answer: representatives of bacteria and protozoa living in the human intestine. There are 250 billion microorganisms in 1 g of colon contents. Many substances that enter the human body with food are digested with their active participation. Without intestinal symbionts, normal development is impossible. A disease in which the number of symbiotic intestinal organisms decreases is called dysbiosis. Microorganisms also live in tissues, cavities and on the surface of human skin.)

9.* The relationship between an adult spruce and a neighboring oak seedling is an example:

(Answer: A.)

Laws and consequences of food relations

1. Match the proposed concepts and definitions:

A. An organism that actively seeks out and kills relatively large prey that are capable of fleeing, hiding, or resisting.
B. An organism (usually small in size) that uses living tissues or cells of another organism as a source of nutrition and habitat.
B. An organism that absorbs numerous food objects, usually of plant origin, for which it does not spend much effort searching.
D. An aquatic animal that filters water through itself with numerous small organisms that serve as food for it.
B. An organism that searches for and eats relatively small food objects that are not capable of running away or resisting.

(Answer: 1 – B; 2 – G; 3 – A; 4 – D; 5 – V.)

2. Explain why in China in the mid-twentieth century. Following the destruction of sparrows, the grain harvest sharply decreased. After all, sparrows are granivorous birds.
(Answer: adult sparrows feed mainly on seeds, but chicks need protein food for their development. While feeding their offspring, sparrows collect a huge number of insects, including pests of grain crops. The destruction of sparrows caused outbreaks of pests, which led to a reduction in harvests.)

Laws of competitive relations in nature

1. For each proposed pair of organisms, select a resource (from those given below) for which they can compete: lily of the valley - pine, field mouse - vole, wolf - fox, perch - pike, buzzard - tawny owl, badger - fox, rye - cornflower blue, saxaul - camel thorn, bumblebee - bee.
Resources: hole, nectar, wheat seeds, water, hares, light, small roaches, potassium ions, small rodents.
(Answer: lily of the valley and pine – potassium ions; field mouse and common vole – wheat seeds; wolf and fox are hares; perch and pike – small roach; the buzzard and the tawny owl are small rodents; badger and fox - hole; rye and cornflower - light; saxaul and camel thorn - water; bumblebee and bee - nectar.)

2.* Closely related species often live together, although it is generally accepted that the most intense competition exists between them. Why in these cases does not one species replace the other?
(Answer: 1 – very often closely related species living together occupy different ecological niches (they differ in the composition of their preferred food, in the method of obtaining food, use different microhabitats, are active at different times of the day); 2 – competition may be absent if the resource for which the species compete is in abundance; 3 – displacement does not occur if the number of a competitively stronger species is constantly limited by a predator or a third competitor; 4 - in an unstable environment in which conditions are constantly changing, they can alternately become favorable for one species or another.)

3.* In nature, Scots pine forms forests on relatively poor soils in swampy or, conversely, dry places. Planted by human hands, it grows well in rich soils with average moisture, but only if a person takes care of the plantings. Explain why this happens.
(Answer: Usually, under these conditions, other tree species win the competition (depending on the conditions, this can be aspen, linden, maple, elm, oak, spruce, etc.). When caring for plantings, humans weaken the competitive power of these species by weeding, cutting down, etc.)

Populations

1. Select a value that estimates the population density of the population:

a) 20 individuals;
b) 20 individuals per hectare;
c) 20 individuals per 100 breeding females;
d) 20%;
e) 20 individuals per 100 traps;
e) 20 individuals per year.

(Answer: b.)

2. Select a value that estimates the birth rate (or death rate) of the population:

a) 100 individuals;
b) 100 individuals per year;
c) 100 individuals per hectare;
d) 100.

(Answer: b.)

3. White hares and brown hares living in the same territory are:

a) one population of one species;
b) two populations of two species;
c) two populations of the same species;
d) one population of different species.

(Answer: b.)

4. Forest felling was carried out annually on an area of ​​100 km2. At the time of the organization of this reserve, 50 moose were recorded. After 5 years, the number of moose increased to 650 animals. After another 10 years, the number of moose decreased to 90 and stabilized in subsequent years at the level of 80–110 animals.
Determine the population density of moose: a) at the time of the creation of the reserve; b) 5 years after the creation of the reserve; c) 15 years after the creation of the reserve. Explain why the number of moose initially increased sharply, and later fell and stabilized.
(Answer: a – 0.5 individuals/km2; b – 6.5 individuals/km2; c – 0.9 individuals/km2. The number of moose has increased due to protection in the reserve. Later, the number decreased, since logging is prohibited in reserves. This led to the fact that after 15 years, small trees growing in old clearings grew, and the food supply for moose decreased.)

5. Game experts established that in the spring, 8 sables lived on an area of ​​20 km2 of taiga forest, of which 4 were females (adult sables do not form permanent pairs). Every year, one female gives birth to an average of three cubs. The average mortality rate of sables (adults and calves) at the end of the year is 10%. Determine the number of sables at the end of the year; density in spring and at the end of the year; annual mortality rate; birth rate per year.
(Answer: the number of sables at the end of the year is 18 individuals; density in spring – 0.4 individuals/km2; density at the end of the year 0.9 individuals/km2; mortality rate per year - 2 individuals (according to calculations - 1.8, but the real value, of course, will always be expressed as an integer); The birth rate per year is 12 individuals.)

6.* Is the population: a) a group of cheetahs in the Moscow Zoo; b) family of wolves; c) perches in the lake; d) wheat on the field; e) snails of one species in one mountain gorge; f) bird market; g) brown bears on Sakhalin Island; h) a herd (family) of deer; i) red deer in Crimea; j) colony of rooks; k) all the plants of the spruce forest? Justify your answer.
(Answer: yes - c, d, g, i. A population is a group of individuals of the same species, interconnected, living in the same territory for a long time (several generations). A population is a natural grouping that has a certain gender, age, and spatial structure.)

7.* How can we explain the fact that if in a fight between two (non-fighting) dogs one exposes its unprotected neck, the other will not grab it, while in a fight between a lynx and a dog such behavior will be fatal for the dog that has exposed its neck?
(Answer: aggression between individuals of the same species, as a rule, is aimed at maintaining the hierarchical and spatial structure of the population, and not at the destruction of fellow tribesmen. A population, like a species, is a single whole, and the well-being of one individual largely determines the well-being of the population or species. The lynx will simply eat the dog.)

8.* In the forest, scientists evenly placed traps for white hares. A total of 50 animals were caught. They were tagged and released. A week later the capture was repeated. We caught 70 hares, 20 of which were already marked. Determine the number of hares in the study area, assuming that the animals tagged for the first time are evenly distributed throughout the forest.
(Answer: 50 marked individuals were to be distributed among the total number of hares (X) living in the study area. Their share in the repeated sample should reflect their share in total number, i.e. 50 is to X as 20 is to 70.
Solving the proportion:
50: X = 20: 70; X = 70x 50: 20 = 175.
Thus, the estimated number of hares in the study area is 175 individuals.
This method (Lincoln index, or Petersen index) is used to determine the number of secretive animals that cannot be counted directly. The result of the calculations may have a fractional value, but we must remember that the real number of animals is always expressed as an integer value. In addition, this method has its own errors, which must also be taken into account. It would be more logical to talk, for example, about a population of 170–180 individuals.)

Demographic structure of the population

1. Explain why up to 30% of individuals can be removed from the wild boar population, without the risk of destroying it, while the permissible shooting of moose should not exceed 15% of the population size?
(Answer: On average, a female boar gives birth to 4 to 8 (sometimes up to 15) piglets, and a female moose - 1-2. Therefore, the restoration of the wild boar population is proceeding at a faster pace.)

2. Which organisms have a simple and which have a complex population age structure?
(Answer: organisms differ in simple age structure of populations, duration life cycle which does not exceed one year, and reproduction occurs once in a lifetime and is confined to seasonal changes in the environment. These are, for example, annual plants, a number of insect species, etc. Otherwise, the age structure of populations may be complex.)

3. Explain why a significant spring death of adult shrews will lead to a sharp and prolonged decline in the population, while the complete destruction of all adult cockchafers emerging in the spring will not lead to a similar result.
(Answer: The shrew population in the spring is represented exclusively by adult animals of the previous year of birth. Chafer beetles, whose larvae develop in the soil over 3–4 years, have a complex age population structure. If adult individuals die one spring, they will be replaced the next year by beetles that have developed from another generation of larvae.)

4. Construct age pyramids reflecting the age composition of the population of Russia (140 million inhabitants) and Indonesia (190 million inhabitants), using the given data.

5 *. Name the factors that encourage people in agricultural societies to have more children and in industrial societies to have fewer.

(Answer: see table.)

6 *. Why do scientists believe that a population explosion in the south could lead to catastrophic environmental consequences for the entire planet?

(Answer: explosive population growth causes severe environmental consequences: pressure on local ecosystems (deforestation, soil depletion and erosion, drying up of water bodies, desertification), food shortages, local wars, impoverishment, social upheaval, mass migrations.)

7*. In paragraph 4 (see “Biology”, No. 16/2002) you had to build age pyramids of the population of Russia and Indonesia using the table data. Compare the pyramids built and answer the questions.

A. Which country's population is growing?
B. Which country’s population is stable with a downward trend?
Q. Why is the group from 51 to 60 years old in the age pyramid of the Russian population smaller than neighboring groups?
D. Which country's population is close to simply replacing the size of one generation with another?
D. Calculate the share (in %) of youth (age from 0 to 30 years) in Russia and Indonesia.
E. Which country has the highest demographic potential?

(Answer: A – Indonesia; B – Russia; B – people of this group were born in the 40s and 50s. At this time, due to war, famine and devastation in the country, there was a high mortality rate of the reproductive part of the population, so the proportion of births was significantly lower than in previous and subsequent decades (30–40s and 50–60s). G – Russia; D – in Russia 46%, in Indonesia 62%; E - in Indonesia.)

Population growth and density

1. Which environment will be more capacious (choose the correct answer):

a) for wheat - irrigated field, forest, meadow, wasteland, clearing, field;
b) for a beaver - a river flowing through the steppe; a river flowing through a spruce forest; a river flowing through an aspen forest; a river flowing through the tundra;
c) for the Colorado potato beetle - coniferous forest, meadow, potato field;
d) for perch – lake, swamp, underground reservoir;
e) for the red cockroach – forest, clean room, field, kitchen;
f) for great tits - field, lake, forest, forest with feeders.

(Answer: a) irrigated field; b) a river flowing through an aspen forest; c) potato field; d) lake; e) kitchen; e) forest with feeders.)

2. Draw a graph of population growth on the globe. Until the 19th century. it grew slowly and in 1700 amounted to 0.6 billion people. The milestone of the first billion was crossed in 1830, the second - in 1939, the third - in 1960, the fourth - in 1975, the fifth - in 1987. In 1994, the number of people on Earth reached 5.5 billion , and in 1998 – 5.9 billion.

3. Explosive growth of the world population in the second half of the twentieth century. occurred due to:

a) increasing the birth rate;
b) reducing the mortality rate due to improved nutrition and sanitary and hygienic living conditions;
c) industrial revolution;
d) use of new energy sources;
e) improving women's education.

(Answer: b.)

4. Oncological diseases have a weaker impact on human demography than cholera or AIDS, because:

a) they affect mainly older people (post-reproductive generation);
b) relatively few people die from these diseases;
c) modern medicine can deal with them more easily.

(Answer: A.)

5. Statistics show that more than 80% of cancers are caused by environmental factors. The distribution of the causes of human cancer is as follows: smoking - 30%, food chemicals - 35%, unfavorable working conditions - 5%, alcoholic beverages - 3%, radiation - 3%, air and water pollution - 2%, other reasons – 5%, reasons not related to environmental influences – 17%. Every year, 5.9 million new cases of cancer are registered worldwide and 3.4 million patients die. Calculate how many people in the world die per year from cancer caused by smoking.

(Answer: 1.02 million people.)

6 *. In the 70s XIX century 9 mongooses were brought to the West Indian Islands to combat the proliferation of rats - pests of sugar cane plantations. The animals took root and began to reproduce. Over time, the number of mongooses increased to hundreds of thousands. There were fewer rats, but along with them, local species of frogs, birds, lizards, and crabs began to disappear. Against this background, insects feeding on sugar cane have multiplied significantly. Why do you think people did not get the expected effect from acclimatizing mongooses and increasing cane yields? Why has the number of mongooses increased sharply? Why did insects that feed on sugar cane multiply?

(Answer: acclimatized mongooses in new conditions received a more capacious environment than in their homeland. There were no significant regulators of their numbers on the islands, as a result of which they grew significantly. Mongooses began to consume not only rats, but also other animals (often more accessible), which, in turn, were natural enemies of insects - pests of sugar cane.)

Population numbers and their regulation in nature

1. The following species have more stable population dynamics:

a) with a simple age structure;
b) with a complex age structure;
c) with a variable age structure.

(Answer: b.)

2. From the given examples, select those that describe cases when invasive species in new territories, without encountering enemy regulators, gave an explosion in numbers: American maple in Europe, Colorado potato beetles in Europe, rabbits in Australia, budgies in Europe, corn in Europe , house sparrows in America, Canadian Elodea in Europe, Canadian blue spruce in the Old World.

(Answer: Colorado beetles in Europe, rabbits in Australia, house sparrows in America, Elodea in Europe.)

3. Plot a graph of changes in the procurement of white hare skins in the north of the European part of Russia over 27 years (the volume of procurement is given in points).
Points: 2, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 15, 30, 80, 100, 60, 55, 0, 1, 1, 1, 2, 8, 90, 100, 100, 130, 10, 2, 1, 2.
How many years does one cycle last in the population dynamics of the white hare?

(Answer: about 12 years old.)

Biocenosis and its stability

1. The scientist who substantiated the doctrine of biocenoses (choose the correct answer):

a) V. Johansen;
b) K. Moebius;
c) Ch. Elton;
d) K. Timiryazev.

(Answer: b . )

2. Biocenosis is a collection of organisms:

a) one species living in a certain territory;
b) different species living together and associated with each other;
c) one species living in different parts of the range;
d) living in the same biogeographical region.

(Answer: b . )

3. They dug a pit on the farm and filled it with water. Is it possible to immediately place fish in it and wait for their numbers to grow without feeding?

(Answer: impossible, since it is not provided the necessary conditions for fish life: no plants, food, shelters.)

4. The ecological niche of a species is:

a) habitat of the species;
b) the territory in which the species lives;
c) the space occupied by the species;
d) the position of the species in the community and the complex of living conditions.

(Answer: G.)

5 *. What abiotic factor determines the vertical structure of biocenoses. Why?

(Answer: First of all, light. Plants are the main environment-formers in biocenoses, and their vertical distribution is determined by the degree of illumination.)

6 *. Calculate the similarity index of two phytocenoses (plant components of biocenoses) using the Jaccard formula:

K = C x 100% / (A+B)–C,

where A is the number of species of a given group in the first community, B is the number of species of a given group in the second community, and C is the number of species common to the two communities. The index is expressed as a percentage of similarity.
The first phytocenosis is the blueberry pine forest: Scots pine, bilberry, lingonberry, green moss, two-leaf pine tree, European seven-leaved grass, May lily of the valley, creeping goodyear, round-leaved wintergreen.
The second phytocenosis is pine-lingonberry-green moss: Scots pine, lingonberry, green moss, lily of the valley, wintergreen, wintergreen, common heather, cuckoo, clubmoss.

7*. Calculate the similarity index of two phytocenoses (plant components of biocenoses) using Jaccard’s formula (see previous task): the first is located in a nature reserve, the other is in a neighboring forest where people relax.
List of species of the first phytocenosis: pedunculate oak, linden, hazel, hairy sedge, male fern, Schultes's bedstraw, common gooseberry.
List of species of disturbed phytocenosis: pedunculate oak, domestic apple tree, linden, dandelion, large plantain, hairy sedge, wild strawberry, common gooseberry, stinging nettle, knotweed, large burdock, string.
Write down the names of species that disappeared from the oak forest community due to trampling. Write down the names of the species that appeared in the oak forest due to trampling and other processes accompanying people's recreation in the forest. Using additional literature, write down against each species name its brief ecological characteristics (preferred biotopes, attitude to anthropogenic factors, etc.)

(Answer: A=7; B=12; C=4. Jaccard similarity index – 26.6%. As a result of trampling, hazel, male fern, and Schultes' bedstraw disappeared from the community. New species that appeared after anthropogenic changes in the community: domestic apple, dandelion, large plantain, wild strawberry, stinging nettle, knotweed, large burdock, succession. Disappeared species – typically forest; appeared - weeds and meadows.)

CHAPTER 3. ECOSYSTEMS Laws of ecosystem organization

1. Scientist - founder of biogeocenology:

a) E. Haeckel;
b) V. Sukachev;
c) V. Dokuchaev;
d) K. Timiryazev;
e) K. Mobius.

(Answer: b.)

2. The scientist who introduced the concept of “ecosystem” into science:

a) A. Tansley;
b) V. Dokuchaev;
c) K. Mobius;
d) V. Johansen.

(Answer: A . )

3. Fill in the blanks with the names of functional groups of the ecosystem and kingdoms of living things.

Organisms that consume organic matter and transform it into new forms are called.... They are represented mainly by species belonging to... the world. Organisms that consume organic matter and completely decompose it into mineral compounds are called.... They are represented by species belonging to... and.... Organisms that consume mineral compounds and, using external energy, synthesize organic substances are called.... They are represented mainly by species belonging to... the world.

(Answers(sequentially): consumers, animals, decomposers, fungi and bacteria, producers, plants.)

4. All living things on Earth exist thanks to organic matter, mainly produced by:

a) mushrooms;
b) bacteria;
c) animals;
d) plants.

(Answer: G.)

5. Fill in the missing words.

A community of organisms of different species, closely interconnected and inhabiting a more or less homogeneous area, is called.... It consists of: plants, animals... and... . A set of organisms and components of inanimate nature, united by the cycle of substances and the flow of energy into a single natural complex, is called..., or....

(Answers(sequentially): biocenosis, fungi and bacteria, ecosystem, or biogeocenosis.)

6. Of the listed organisms, producers include:

a) cow;
b) porcini mushroom;
c) red clover;
d) person.

(Answer: c.)

7. Select from the list the names of animals that can be classified as second-order consumers: gray rat, elephant, tiger, dysenteric amoeba, scorpion, spider, wolf, rabbit, mouse, locust, hawk, guinea pig, crocodile, goose, fox, perch, antelope , cobra, steppe turtle, grape snail, dolphin, Colorado potato beetle, bull tapeworm, kangaroo, ladybug, polar bear, honey bee, blood-sucking mosquito, dragonfly, codling moth, aphid, gray shark.

(Answer: gray rat, tiger, dysentery amoeba, scorpion, spider, wolf, hawk, crocodile, fox, perch, cobra, dolphin, bull tapeworm, ladybug, polar bear, blood-sucking mosquito, dragonfly, gray shark.)

8. From the listed names of organisms, select producers, consumers and decomposers: bear, bull, oak, squirrel, boletus, rose hip, mackerel, toad, tapeworm, putrefactive bacteria, baobab, cabbage, cactus, penicillium, yeast.

(Answer: producers - oak, rose hips, baobab, cabbage, cactus; consumers - bear, bull, squirrel, mackerel, toad, tapeworm; decomposers – boletus, putrefactive bacteria, penicillium, yeast.)

9. In an ecosystem, the main flow of matter and energy is transmitted:

(Answer: V . )

10 *. Explain why the existence of life on Earth would be impossible without bacteria and fungi.

(Answer: Fungi and bacteria are the main decomposers in Earth's ecosystems. They decompose dead organic matter into inorganic matter, which is then consumed by green plants. Thus, fungi and bacteria support the cycle of elements in nature, and therefore life itself.)

11 *. Explain why it is economically profitable to keep herbivorous fish in cooling ponds at thermal power plants.

(Answer: These ponds are heavily overgrown with aquatic vegetation, as a result, the water in them stagnates, which disrupts the cooling of waste water. The fish eat all the vegetation and grow well.)

12 *. Name organisms that are producers but do not belong to the Plant Kingdom.

(Answer: photosynthetic flagellated protozoa (for example, green euglena), chemosynthetic bacteria, cyanobacteria.

13*. Organisms that are not absolutely necessary in maintaining a closed cycle of nutrients (nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, etc.):

a) producers;
b) consumers;
c) decomposers.

(Answer: b.)

Laws of biological productivity

1. Determine a correctly composed pasture food chain:

a) leopard – gazelle – grass;
b) clover - hare - eagle - frog;
c) humus – earthworm – shrew – ermine;
d) grass - green grasshopper - frog - snake.

(Answer: G.)

2. Make five power circuits. They all must start with plants (their parts) or dead organic matter (detritus). The intermediate link in the first case should be an earthworm; in the second - a mosquito larva in a fresh water body; in the third - a housefly; in the fourth - the larva of the cockchafer; in the fifth - ciliates slipper. All food chains must end with a person. Offer the longest chain options. Why does the number of links not exceed 6–7?

(Possible answers:

1) dandelion – detritus – earthworm – chicken – human;
2) detritus – mosquito larva – small roach – perch – pike – human;
3) detritus – housefly larva (adult fly) – dragonfly – chub – human;
4) pine (roots) – chafer larva – wild boar – human;
5) detritus – ciliate slipper – juvenile crucian carp – aquatic dragonfly larva – diving duck – human.

Only approximately 10% of the energy from the previous level is transferred to each subsequent trophic level. Therefore, the total amount of energy in food chains is rapidly falling.)

3. Name animals that in food chains can occupy the place of consumers (consumers) of both the first and second or even third order.

(Answer: man, brown bear, gray rat, chimpanzee, hoodie, wild boar, etc.)

4. Name plants that can occupy the place of both a producer and a second-order consumer.

(Answer: sundew, butterwort, Venus flytrap, bladderwort and other insectivorous plants.)

5. Indicate grazing (1) and detrital (2) food chains:

a) diatoms – mayfly larva – caddisfly larva;
b) brown algae – shore snail – oystercatcher;
c) dead animal - carrion fly larva - grass frog - common grass frog;
d) nectar – fly – spider – shrew – owl;
e) cow droppings – fly larva – starling – sparrowhawk;
f) leaf litter – earthworm – shrew – stoat.

(Answer: 1– a, b, d; 2 – c, d, f.)

6. Of the total amount of energy transferred in a food web from one trophic level to another, approximately 10%:

a) initially comes from the sun;
b) consumed during breathing;
c) goes to the construction of new tissues;
d) turns into useless heat;
e) excreted in excrement.

(Answer: V.)

7. In pond farms, it is more profitable to raise silver carp rather than pike because:

a) silver carp grow faster;
b) pikes die more often from diseases and unfavorable conditions;
c) silver carp feed on energetically cheap plant food, while pike eat expensive animal food.

(Answer: V . )

8. Is a substance used repeatedly or once in the biogenic cycle? Is energy used repeatedly or once in the biogenic cycle?

(Answer: substance repeatedly; energy once.)

9. Approximately 10% of the energy contained in the body passes to the next trophic level. Explain where the remaining 90% is spent.

(Answer: 90% of energy is spent on maintaining the vital activity of organisms that make up the previous level.)

10. On land, the least productive ecosystems are located in:

a) tropical forests;
b) temperate forests;
c) steppes and savannas;
d) arctic deserts;
e) subtropical forests;
e) hot deserts;
g) mountains above 3000 m.

(Answer: g, f, g.)

11. The highest increase in primary production in aquatic ecosystems has (choose the correct answers):

a) lakes of temperate latitudes;
b) ocean waters of temperate latitudes;
c) subtropical ocean waters;
d) tropical ocean waters;
e) river mouths in hot regions of the Earth;
e) shallow ocean coral reefs.

(Answer: d, f.)

12 *. Name the organisms that should or could be in place of gaps in the description of food chains:

a) flower nectar – fly – ? – tit – ?;
b) wood – ? – woodpecker;
c) leaves – ? – cuckoo;
d) seeds – ? – viper – stork;
e) grass – grasshopper – ? – already – ?.

(Answer options: a) spider and hawk, b) longhorned beetle larva, c) butterfly caterpillar, d) mouse, frog, e) snake-eating eagle.)

13 *. It is known that many chemicals created by man (for example, agricultural poisons) are poorly eliminated from the living body naturally. Explain why animals of the upper trophic levels (predators, humans themselves) will suffer most from these compounds, and not the lower ones.

(Answer: due to the accumulation and increase in the concentration of poorly excreted substances during the transition from one trophic level to another.)

14. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much grass is needed to grow one eagle weighing 5 kg (food chain: grass - hare - eagle). Conventionally, assume that at each trophic level, only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.

(Answer: 500 kg of grass.)

15. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much phytoplankton is needed to grow one pike weighing 10 kg (food chain: phytoplankton - zooplankton - small fish - perch - pike). Conventionally, assume that at each trophic level, only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.

(Answer: 100,000 kg, or 100 tons, of phytoplankton.)

16. Knowing the ten percent rule, calculate how much phytoplankton is needed to grow one bear weighing 300 kg (food chain: phytoplankton - zooplankton - small fish - salmon - bear). Conventionally, assume that at each trophic level, only representatives of the previous level are always eaten.

(Answer: 3,000,000 kg, or 3000 tons, of phytoplankiton.)

17 *. The productivity of a coral reef is higher than that of most open ocean areas near the equator because the ecosystem receives more (choose correct answer):

A) sunlight;
b) batteries;
c) water;
d) heat.

(Answer: b.)

31*. If in a forest on an area of ​​1 hectare, we weigh separately all insects, all plants and all predatory vertebrates (amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals combined), then the representatives of which group will weigh the most in total? Least of all? Why?

(Answer: the greatest biomass will be in plants, the smallest - in representatives of the last link - predators.)

32. The weight of a female of one of the species of bats that feeds on insects does not exceed 5 grams. Each of her two newborn cubs weighs 1 gram. Within a month of feeding the cubs with milk, the weight of each of them reaches 4.5 grams. Based on the rule of the ecological pyramid, determine how much insect mass the female must consume during this time in order to feed her offspring. What is the mass of plants that is preserved due to the destruction of herbivorous insects by the female? (*)

(Answer: we make up a food chain: plants - herbivorous insects - bat. We calculate the mass gained by baby bats after birth: 4.5 g – 1 g = 3.5 g; 3.5 x 2 = 7 (g) We substitute the value of 7 g into the food chain diagram and get the answers: herbivorous insects - 70 g, plants - 700 g.)

How can one explain the large difference in daily energy requirements (per unit body weight) between humans and small birds or small mammals? (**)

(Answer: Small birds and mammals have a larger body surface to volume ratio than humans, so they lose heat faster. Accordingly, to maintain a constant body temperature, they must consume more energy.)

17 *. The productivity of a coral reef is higher than that of most open ocean areas near the equator because the ecosystem receives more:

a) sunlight;
b) batteries;
c) water;
d) heat.

(Answer: b.)

18*. If in a forest on an area of ​​1 hectare we weigh separately all insects, all plants and all predatory vertebrates (amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals combined), then the representatives of which group will weigh the most in total; least of all? Explain your answer.

(Answer: The largest biomass will be in plants, the smallest - in representatives of the last link - predators.)

19. The weight of a female of one of the species of bats that feeds on insects does not exceed 5 g. The weight of each of her two newborn cubs is 1 g. During a month of feeding the cubs with milk, the weight of each of them reaches 4.5 g. Based on the rules of the ecological pyramid, determine which The female must consume a lot of insects during this time in order to feed her offspring. What is the mass of plants that is preserved due to the destruction of herbivorous insects by the female?

(Answer: We make up a food chain: plants – herbivorous insects – bat. We calculate the mass gained by baby bats after birth: 4.5 g – 1 g = 3.5 g; 3.5 x 2 = 7 (g). We substitute the value of 7 g into the food chain diagram and get the answers: herbivorous insects - 70 g, plants - 700 g)

20.* How can one explain the large difference in daily energy requirements (per unit body weight) between humans and small birds or small mammals?

(Answer: Small birds and mammals have a greater ratio of body surface to volume than humans, so they lose heat faster. Accordingly, to maintain a constant body temperature, they must consume more energy.)

Agrocenoses and agroecosystems

1. Fill in the missing words.

Agrocenosis is an artificial... that arose as a result... . Agrocenoses can exist only with constant costs... from humans.

(Answer: biocenosis, human activity, energy.)

2. It was noticed that in agrocenoses the number of species – plant consumers during mass outbreaks of reproduction many times exceed their numbers in natural biocenoses. It's connected with:

a) increased productivity of agrocenoses;
b) the growth of monocultures over vast territories;
c) alternation of different agrocenoses from year to year on the same territory;
d) high biological diversity of agrocenoses.

(Answer: b.)

3. Often the use of chemicals (pesticides) against agricultural pests causes an even greater outbreak of their numbers the following year. This is due to the fact that modern pesticides:

(Answer: b.)

4. Give examples of agrocenoses. Name the agrocenoses that can be found in your area.

(Answer: these can be fields with various crops, hay meadows, grazing meadows (pastures), artificial fish ponds, gardens, plantations of vegetables, berries, medicinal plants, plantations of marine animals, farms, etc.)

5.* Substances used in agriculture to kill insects are called:

a) herbicides;
b) phytoncides;
c) fungicides;
d) insecticides.

(Answer: G.)

6.* How does the thickness (thickness) of soil change in natural zones from the tundra through the forest zone to the steppes and further to deserts?

(Answer: from the tundra to the steppes, the thickness of the soil on average increases, and from the steppe to the desert it drops sharply.)

7.* In summer, almost all the fish died in ponds and small lakes located next to fields that were intensively treated with nitrogen fertilizers. It was determined that death was due to lack of oxygen. Explain this phenomenon.

(Answer: When it rained, nitrogenous fertilizers were washed away from the fields into nearby water bodies. The increased concentration of water-soluble nitrogen compounds caused rapid proliferation of algae and cyanobacteria. When they died, these organisms decomposed. The decomposition process involves the consumption of large amounts of oxygen. Thus, the lack of oxygen in reservoirs with stagnant water caused the death of fish.)

8.* In order to survive, the gray toad needs to eat 5 g of slugs per day - pests of agricultural crops. About 10 toads live on an area of ​​1 hectare. Calculate the mass of pests that toads will destroy in a small field of 10 hectares during the warm season (from May to the end of September - 150 days).

(Answer: 75 kg.)

9.* Ecologists are convinced that the use of more productive varieties of agricultural plants and animal breeds solves not only economic, but also environmental problems. Why?

(Answer: in this case, from the same area of ​​farmland a person will receive more products, therefore, the capacity of the environment will increase. Accordingly, to increase the amount of products obtained, there is no need to develop new territories, so part of the existing agricultural territories can be cleared and re-occupied by natural communities.)

Self-development of ecosystems - succession

1. Among the listed changes in ecosystems, select cyclical (A) and progressive (B): 1) leaf fall; 2) overgrowing of the lake; 3) flowering of plants; 4) overgrowing of the swamp with bushes; 5) seasonal bird migrations.

(Answer: A – 1, 3, 5; B – 2, 4.)

2. Describe what changes will occur to a stagnant lake that is becoming shallower from year to year. Can changes in the lake be called succession? Will this change the composition of organisms and the productivity of the ecosystem? Will this process be fully observed in a flowing lake and why?

(Answer: The stagnant lake will gradually become overgrown. In tens of years, a terrestrial ecosystem will emerge in place of the lake. This process is succession. The composition of organisms and the productivity of ecosystems changes during succession. In a flowing lake, this process will not be fully observed, because most of the organic matter is washed out of it.)

3. What will happen to a plowed field in a forest zone in a few years if a person stops cultivating crops on it?

(Answer: it will be overgrown first with meadow plants, and then with forest.)

4. It will take about 100–150 years to restore the spruce forest on the plain after felling. The same process on steep mountain slopes takes 500–1000 years. It's connected with:

a) the absence in the mountains of plant species of intermediate stages of spruce forest restoration;
b) special weather conditions of the mountains;
c) soil washout after forest felling.

(Answer: V.)

5. How should you cut down forest in the mountains in order to reduce the time of natural restoration of the spruce forest?

(Answer: You cannot cut down trees on steep slopes. On less steep ones, it is necessary to cut in small plots, leaving seed trees on them. Immediately after felling, plant trees, preferably manually, without the use of machinery.)

6. What minerals of biogenic origin appeared due to an imbalance in the cycle of substances in ecosystems?

(Answer: peat, coal, oil, limestone, natural gas. All minerals of biogenic origin are the result of the accumulation of substances that fell out of the natural cycle for one reason or another.)

7. Is the statement correct:

a) the main reason for the self-development of ecosystems (succession) is the imbalance of the cycle of substances;
b) during the self-development of ecosystems, the species composition does not change;
c) the overgrowing of a stagnant lake is called self-development of the ecosystem (succession);
d) species that make up ecosystems are not capable of changing the environment in the course of their life activities;
e) mature communities are internally stable;
f) unstable stages when changing ecosystems are called immature communities;
g) in mature communities, everything that producers produce is consumed by consumers, and in immature communities, part of the organic substances is removed from the cycle;
h) factors external to ecosystems are not capable of bringing mature communities out of a stable state?

(Answer: yes - a, c, d, f, g; no – b, d, h.)

8.* Explain why plant species alien to local ecosystems grow, as a rule, in disturbed places: roadsides, landfills, river banks, abandoned construction sites, soil dumps, animal nests, in grazing and hay meadows, in agrocenoses, etc. Why are they not found in undisturbed communities?

(Answer:“aliens”, as a rule, are less adapted to local conditions than species that live and co-evolve here for a long time. Therefore, the latter are more competitively strong. In disturbed communities, the competitive power of local species is weakened due to external forces, or these species are simply destroyed. This allows “aliens” to settle in such places.)

9.* Answer the question and justify which succession is longer (in all cases it ends with the forest stage):

a) overgrowing of abandoned arable land;
b) overgrowth of a forest fire;
c) overgrowing of clearings;
d) overgrowing of soil dumps during mining;
e) overgrowing of an abandoned forest road.

(Answer: d. On dumps, unlike other options, there is no soil, the formation of which should take a lot of time . )

10.* In a spruce forest located upstream of a lowland river, which was blocked by a hydroelectric dam, the grass cover began to change. At first, oxalis, maynik and sedmichnik grew under the canopy of spruce trees. Gradually they were replaced by blueberries and green moss, and later the moisture-loving molinia grass and cuckoo flax moss appeared. The spruce trees began to die and fall out. Spruce seedlings died in the early stages of development. Gradually, cuckoo flax was replaced by sphagnum. Why did these changes happen? Can they be called succession of the spruce ecosystem? What will happen to the spruce forest in the future?

(Answer: These changes occurred due to an increase in groundwater levels, which led to changes in the species composition of plants, animals, fungi and bacteria - those species for which the new conditions were more favorable began to predominate. As the flooding process intensifies, the spruce forest will eventually turn into a swamp. Since the reason causing these changes is due to a force external to the original ecosystem, this process cannot be called succession.)

Biological diversity as the main condition for the sustainability of populations, biocenoses and ecosystems

1. The natural community (for example, a lingonberry pine forest) includes:

a) thousands of species of organisms;
b) several types;
c) millions of species;
d) billions of species.

(Answer: A.)

2.

a) a complete species composition of the community is the basis for the stability of the ecosystem;
b) the mutual complementarity of plant species in ecosystems contributes to a more complete use of solar energy;
c) in a community, species cannot functionally replace each other;
d) ecosystems are not capable of self-regulation;
e) the more diverse and complex the structure of the ecosystem, the worse its regulatory abilities;
f) the diversity of species in ecosystems ensures the reliability of their functioning?

(Answer: yes – a, b, e; no – c, d, d.)

Biosphere

1. The doctrine of the biosphere was created by:

a) Jean Baptiste Lamarck;
b) Louis Pasteur;
c) Vasily Vasilievich Dokuchaev;
d) Alexey Nikolaevich Severtsov;
e) Vladimir Nikolaevich Sukachev;
f) Vladimir Ivanovich Vernadsky;
g) Nikolai Ivanovich Vavilov.

(Answer: e.)

2. The biosphere is:

a) the shell of the Earth in which living beings exist and interact with the environment (or have ever existed and interacted);
b) the shell of the Earth, including part of the lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere;
c) the shell of the Earth in which humanity exists.

(Answer: A.)

3. The layers of the atmosphere are:

a) stratosphere;
b) troposphere;
c) hydrosphere;
d) ionosphere;
e) lithosphere.

(Answer: a, b, d.)

4. The upper boundary of the biosphere is at an altitude:

a) 100–120 m;
b) 1–2 km;
c) 10–12 km;
d) 16–20 km;
e) 100–120 km;
e) 160–200 km.

(Answer: G.)

5. The boundary of the biosphere in the ocean is located at a depth:

a) 100–120 m;
b) 1–2 km;
c) 5–6 km;
d) 10–11 km;
e) 20 km;
e) 100 km.

(Answer: G.)

6. The boundary of the biosphere in the lithosphere is located at a depth:

a) 1–2 m;
b) 10–12 m;
c) 100–120 m;
d) 1 km;
e) 3 km.

(Answer: d.)

7. Are the statements correct (yes or no):

a) 4 billion years ago, at the dawn of life, the atmosphere, hydrosphere and soil existed;
b) atmospheric nitrogen appeared mainly as a result of volcanic activity;
c) the energy contained in oil, coal, peat is the energy of the sun bound by plants;
d) nuclear energy is the energy of the sun bound by plants and other organisms;
e) soil is a bio-inert substance because it consists of mineral components, organic compounds and organisms;
f) the biological cycle of substances in the biosphere is the basis for maintaining stable conditions for the existence of life and humanity;
g) the role of living beings in the destruction and weathering of rocks is insignificant;
h) living beings are not capable of changing the climate of the planet;
i) the ozone screen arose on Earth due to the life of plants;
j) did soil appear when organisms reached land?

(Answer: yes - in, d, e, i, k; no – a, b, d, g, h.)

8. The biosphere includes:

a) organisms and abiotic environment;
b) only organisms.

(Answer: A.)

9. The energy of the Sun on Earth is not spent in one way or another on:

a) accumulation in the form of energy chemical bonds in organic matter;
b) heating and evaporation of water masses;
c) the movement of stones from the mountains downwards;
d) movement of air masses;
e) movement of cars;
f) overcoming the force of gravity during takeoff of a modern spacecraft.

(Answer: V.)

10. In what natural processes in the biosphere, occurring with the participation of organisms, does the binding and release of carbon dioxide occur?

(Answer: binding occurs during photosynthesis, and release occurs during respiration, fermentation, and decay.)

11. Determine what type of element cycle (sedimentary or gas) the cycles of sulfur, nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and phosphorus belong to.

(Answer: The sedimentary cycle of elements includes the cycle of sulfur and phosphorus, and the gas cycle includes nitrogen, oxygen, carbon).

12. Knowing the laws of migration of elements in the biosphere, arrange the places for collecting medicinal herbs in order of increasing health hazards that may arise when using these plants: in a city, near highways, near a railroad track, in a forest far from a populated area, near a village.

(Answer: in a city, next to highways, next to a railway track, next to a village, in a forest far from a populated area.)

13.* Select from the following organisms those groups that participate in the formation of carbonate sedimentary rocks:

a) diatoms;
b) fish;
c) foraminifera;
d) birds;
e) animals;
e) shellfish;
g) plants.

(Answer: c, e.)

14. Select from the listed organisms those groups that participate in the formation of siliceous sedimentary rocks:

a) diatoms;
b) fish;
c) foraminifera;
d) birds;
e) animals;
e) shellfish;
g) plants.

(Answer: A . )

15.* The total content of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere is about 1100 billion tons. It has been established that in one year vegetation assimilates almost 1 billion tons of carbon. About the same amount is released into the atmosphere. Determine how many years it will take for all the carbon in the atmosphere to pass through organisms (the atomic weight of carbon is 12, oxygen is 16).

(Answer: first it is necessary to establish how many tons of carbon are contained in the Earth's atmosphere - 44 tons of carbon dioxide contain 12 tons of carbon, 1100 billion tons of CO2 - 300 billion tons. When plants consume 1 billion tons of carbon per year, all the carbon in the atmosphere will be absorbed by them. integral part and will re-enter the Earth's atmosphere within 300 years.)

CHAPTER 4. ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS AND THEIR SOLUTIONS

Contemporary issues nature conservation

1. Select from the proposed list exhaustible non-renewable natural resources: fish, plants, tidal energy, wind energy, coal, atmospheric air, birds, oil, ocean waters, fresh water, iron ores, soil, solar energy, copper pyrite, polymetallic ores, natural gas, table salt, forests, sunlight, mammals, peat, pearls.

(Answer: coal, oil, iron ores, copper pyrites, polymetallic ores, natural gas, peat.)

2. Arrange the listed energy sources in descending order of their environmental safety: hydroelectric power plants (HPPs) on lowland rivers; Hydroelectric power stations on mountain rivers; nuclear power plants; solar stations; coal-fired thermal power plants (CHP); CHP powered by natural gas; CHPP on peat; CHP plant using fuel oil; tidal power stations; wind power plants.

(Answer: solar stations; wind power plants; tidal power stations; Hydroelectric power stations on mountain rivers; Hydroelectric power stations on lowland rivers; nuclear power plants; CHP powered by natural gas; CHP plant using fuel oil; Coal-fired thermal power plant; CHPP on peat.)

3. Urbanization – this is the process:

a) population growth;
b) growth in the share of the urban population;
c) pollution of the environment with waste;
d) increasing human pressure on the environment.

(Answer: b.)

4.* Why do environmental scientists believe that people who use water, electricity, gas, food, and household items sparingly actually protect nature?

(Answer: At the same time, they conserve resources and pollute the environment less.)

5.* Why are forest areas declining in most countries?

(Answer: forests are cut down for timber, clearing for fields, pastures, cities, industrial buildings, and mining.)

Current status and atmospheric protection

1. The Earth's atmosphere contains 20.95%:

a) nitrogen;
b) oxygen;
c) carbon dioxide;
d) hydrocarbons;
d) argon.

(Answer: b.)

2. The greenhouse effect, caused by an increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, leads to:

a) a decrease in the temperature of the lower layers of the atmosphere;
b) an increase in the temperature of the lower layers of the atmosphere;
c) melting of eternal snow and flooding of low-lying areas of land;
d) poisoning of organisms;
e) an increase in background radiation on Earth.

(Answer: b, c.)

3. The share of which gas in the Earth's atmosphere is increasing due to human activity?

(Answer: carbon dioxide . )

4. Why is the incidence of tree diseases higher within the city and their life expectancy shorter than in nearby rural areas?

(Answer: this is due to the increased content of harmful compounds in the atmosphere and soil of the city; heavy dust, which impairs photosynthesis; disruption of air and water exchange in the soil during road construction and asphalt laying; soil salinity; mechanical damage to plants; lack of the required amount of nutrients in the soil due to disruption of the cycle of elements.)

5. The ozone layer is located in:

a) the lower layer of the atmosphere;
b) the upper layer of the atmosphere;
c) the upper layer of the ocean;
d) the depth of the ocean.

(Answer: b.)

6. Why do main highways in large cities need to be designed parallel, and not perpendicular to the direction of the main winds?

(Answer: When highways are located parallel, the wind blows harmful automobile emissions from the ground layer and reduces their concentration on the roads. Otherwise, harmful substances will flow from the roads into the construction area.)

7*. Give a forecast of the state of the environment when the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere decreases.

(Answer: global cooling, glaciation of northern and high mountain areas, decreased precipitation, reduced ocean area, changes in the boundaries of natural zones, desertification of inland areas, decreased plant productivity.)

8*. Calculations carried out by scientists indicate that in the next 150–180 years the amount of atmospheric oxygen will decrease by one third compared to the present time. What types of human activities contribute to the reduction of oxygen in the atmosphere?

(Answer: increase in the amount of fuel burned; reduction in forest area and vegetation in general; increase in desert area; pollution of water bodies and death of aquatic plants.)

9*. Vegetation Western Europe, the northeastern United States and some other areas of the globe produces many times less oxygen than is consumed by industry and heterotrophic organisms living in these areas. Why does life persist in these areas?

(Answer: the preservation of life in these areas occurs due to the mixing of gases in the atmosphere. Oxygen moves here from other areas of the Earth.)

10*. Consider the table showing the amount of major pollutants emitted into the atmosphere of Moscow in 1992.

Calculate the amount of pollutants per year (in thousand tons) released into the atmosphere of Moscow by transport and stationary sources (plants, factories, etc.). Who pollutes the atmosphere more: transport or stationary sources? How many times? Calculate how many kilograms of atmospheric pollutants fall per year per Moscow resident (Moscow's population is 10 million people).

(Answer: transport emits 911.3 thousand tons of pollutants per year, and industrial stationary sources - 272.8. In total, 1184.1 thousand tons of substances enter the Moscow atmosphere per year. Transport emits 3.3 times more substances into the Moscow atmosphere than industry. Each Moscow resident annually accounts for approximately 118.4 kg of harmful substances released into the city’s atmosphere.)

Rational use and protection of water resources

Scheme. Wastewater treatment process

1. Decipher the abbreviations surfactant, SMS, hydroelectric power station, nuclear power plant.

(Answer: surfactants; synthetic detergents; hydroelectric power station; nuclear power plant.)

2. List the sectors of the economy that are the main consumers of fresh water.

(Answer: irrigation of agricultural lands, urban management, metallurgy, chemical industry (production of nylon, rubber, etc.), pulp and paper industry.)

3. List the sectors of the economy that pollute surface and ground water to the greatest extent.

(Answer: pulp and paper, chemical, metallurgical, oil refining, textile industries; Agriculture.)

4. It is known that the substances that make up oil are largely insoluble in water and, in comparison with other pollutants, are slightly toxic. Why is water pollution with petroleum products considered one of the most dangerous?

(Answer: insoluble petroleum products cover water with a thin film, which prevents gas exchange between water and the atmosphere.)

5. Every year, as a result of accidents on oil pipelines and tankers, industrial and transport emissions, washing of cars, ships, tanks and tanker holds, 14 million tons of oil enter the World Ocean. One gram of oil (petroleum products) is capable of forming a film on an area of ​​10 m2 of water surface. Determine the area of ​​annual pollution of the world's water bodies.

(Answer: 140 million km2.)

6. Greenland ice dating back to 800 BC contains 0.0004 micrograms of lead per kg of ice. The ice formed in 1753 contains 25 times more lead; ice formed in 1969 contains 0.2 µg of lead per 1 kg, i.e. 500 times more. Explain how lead gets into the Greenland ice. Why is the lead content in ice increasing?

(Answer: Lead compounds enter the ice of Greenland mainly with sediments and dust brought from other regions of the Earth. The development of industry and economic activity of people leads to a manifold increase, compared to the natural background, in emissions of various substances that spread over long distances from the source of pollution.)

7. Where do agricultural chemicals run off from fields accumulate?

(Answer: mainly in water bodies. From water, these substances enter aquatic plants, invertebrates, fish and other organisms. Through food chains they can again enter the organisms of land species. Some of the chemicals are deposited in the silt and sediment of rivers. Some remains in the soil and deep layers of soil.)

8*. What is the advantage of closed water technologies compared to the construction of advanced treatment facilities?

(Answer: Even the most advanced industrial treatment facilities are not capable of completely purifying sewage and industrial wastewater. In closed technologies, water used in production does not enter the environment, so it does not become polluted.)

9*. Floating felled trees along rivers is very economically profitable (no need to build roads, use expensive equipment, etc.). Why are environmentalists against such transportation, especially if the trees are not tied into rafts, but floated individually?

(Answer: During rafting, some of the trees drown, litter the banks, settle on the bends of the river, and a large amount of bark and parts of the rafted logs fall to the bottom of the river. On many northern rivers of our country, drowned trees line the bottom several meters deep. The rotting of this wood and bark is accompanied by the consumption of large amounts of oxygen and the release of various toxic substances. This leads (especially in hot summers) to mass death of aquatic organisms. In such rivers, fish gradually disappear.)

10*. Where can snow collected on city roads be transported and unloaded (taking into account the economic and environmental consequences)? Choose the correct answer and justify it:

a) on the field;
b) into a river or lake;
c) in a specially dug pit;
d) to any place.

(Answer: V. Snow collected from roads contains a large amount of harmful substances (petroleum products, acids, salts, rubber, soot and many other compounds). The entry of these substances into water bodies, fields, and forests without natural or artificial purification is dangerous.)

11*. Often along one side of the road passing through the forest, you can notice the loss of trees and waterlogging of the soil. Explain why this happens. How can this situation be corrected during road construction?

(Answer: in such places, the road or path blocks the flow of water (surface or groundwater). Therefore, waterlogging begins upstream, which leads to loss of trees and change of vegetation. Such phenomena can be avoided by building drainage pipes under the roads.)

Use and protection of subsoil and soil resources

Scheme. Recycling - use of secondary raw materials

1. Explain why environmentalists believe that the collection of scrap metal and waste paper is an important environmental activity.

(Answer: recycling of raw materials can significantly reduce its removal from nature, especially for non-renewable and limited natural resources. As a result, the burden on nature caused by the extraction of raw materials is reduced, raw materials, energy and human labor are saved, environmental pollution from waste is reduced, etc.)

2. List the non-renewable mineral resources, the reserves of which are projected to be more than half depleted in the first half of the 21st century.

(Answer: oil, as well as ores containing nickel, cobalt, lead, zinc, tungsten, silver, copper and others.)

3. How to plow the soil (or form beds) on a slope to prevent soil erosion (choose the correct answer and justify it):

a) along the slope;
b) across the slope;
c) along the diagonal of the slope.

(Answer: b. Such plowing will to the greatest extent prevent the washing of bare soil down the slope.)

4*. In steppe ecosystems, the most fertile soils were formed over a long period of time: chernozem and chestnut soils. In the 50s of the twentieth century. In the USSR and Canada, virgin lands were developed: steppes were plowed to grow wheat and other grain crops. Why did some scientists oppose plowing the steppes and using them to grow crops? What consequences can result from frequent cultivation (primarily moldboard plowing) of soil in the steppe?

(Answer: strong winds and frequent droughts in the steppes can lead to the fertile layer being eroded when the soil is exposed during plowing. In addition, steppe grass and a cushion of last year's withered vegetation create a special microclimate and maintain higher humidity in steppe ecosystems. Frequent tillage (especially plowing) can lead to loss of soil fertility and ultimately to desertification. Therefore, scientists recommended either abandoning the plowing of the steppe, or carrying out non-moldboard plowing, rather than the traditional moldboard plowing. Over time, the correctness of this point of view was confirmed.)

(Answer: moldless plowing cuts the upper horizon of the soil, leaving stubble (remains of last year's grass) on the surface. Since the stubble does not turn over, the soil is not exposed. This helps to dramatically reduce soil erosion.)

Current state and protection of vegetation

1. Explain why on rivers along which forests have been cut down, the water level is not constant: if there is little precipitation, the level drops significantly, if it rains, water may overflow the banks, flooding populated areas, fields, etc. Why do floods rarely occur on forest rivers?

(Answer: forest vegetation reduces the rate of water flow from the catchment area to the rivers by hundreds of times. As a result, water (through underground and surface flows) enters the rivers evenly, which eliminates flooding or shallowing of water flows.)

2. Mudflow is a dangerous natural phenomenon, which is a rapid mud flow in the mountains caused by snowmelt or heavy rains. Mudflows carry with them many stones and boulders of enormous size and can cause enormous destruction and loss of life. Why are mudflows practically absent in places where the population is low? Why is the probability of mudflows very high in places where forests are cut down in the mountains and (or) domestic animals are grazed?

(Answer: modern human activity in the mountains is associated with deforestation and intensive destruction of vegetation (grazing, construction of roads and structures, etc.). Bare and unprotected soil is easily washed away during heavy floods or rainstorms, which leads to the formation of mudflows. The more intense and uncontrolled human activity in the mountains, the higher the likelihood of mudflows.)

3. Why does it take longer for snow to melt in the forest in spring than on the field? What does this mean for plants; for the hydraulic regime of fields, forests, rivers?

(Answer: There is more shade in the forest, so it is cooler. Longer melting of spring snow in the forest allows the soil to accumulate more moisture. The microclimate of the forest promotes less evaporation - as a result, more water remains in the soil. Prolonged snowmelt does not contribute to the rapid loss of soil and litter that is observed in the fields.)

4.

a) blue cornflower;
b) lily of the valley;
c) lady's slipper;
d) chamomile;
e) St. John's wort.

(Answer: V . )

5. Are the statements correct (yes or no):

a) over the past 10 thousand years, humans have destroyed 2/3 of the forests on the planet;
b) now the area of ​​felling significantly exceeds the area of ​​tree planting;
c) deforested areas of tropical rainforests are quickly restored to their previous composition;
d) desertification cannot occur as a result of deforestation;
d) greatest number fires occur due to natural causes;
f) biological control measures are the most ineffective and do not last long;
g) the most effective protection of rare plants is in parks and resort areas;
h) listing a species in the Red Book is a signal of danger threatening its existence;
i) vegetation, including forests, are non-renewable natural resources;
j) the economic damage caused to forests by fires exceeds the damage caused by pests and diseases.

(Answer: “yes” – a, b, h, j; “no” – c, d, d, f, g, i.)

6*. Environmentalists believe that in the northern regions the forest can be cut down and removed only in winter in deep snow. Why?

(Answer: in this case, the soil cover is significantly less disturbed - the litter and herbaceous layer of plants are not destroyed, potholes and ruts are not formed that change the hydraulic regime and contribute to soil erosion. In northern regions, where the soil layer takes a long time to form and does not reach a significant thickness, compliance with these conditions becomes especially important.)

Rational use and protection of animals

1. The Red Book of Russia contains:

a) pine marten;
b) an ordinary hedgehog;
c) sable;
d) Amur tiger;
d) brown hare.

(Answer: G.)

2. The following is prohibited in nature reserves:

a) examine animals;
b) pick mushrooms;
c) collect insects for scientific purposes;
d) catch animals for banding.

(Answer: b.)

3. Select from the list the names of animals that were on the verge of extinction, and then saved by humans and regained commercial significance:

a) wild boar;
b) elk;
c) bison;
d) sable;
e) European river beaver;
f) stone marten;
g) Przewalski's horse;
h) ermine.

(Answer: b, d, d.)

4. In which of the following protected areas is economic activity completely excluded:

a) reserve;
b) reserve;
c) national park;
d) sanitary resort zone.

(Answer: b.)

5. Are the statements correct (yes or no):

a) animals have only positive meaning for humans;
b) there are no harmful or beneficial animals in nature, each of them is important for nature in its own way;
c) humans are responsible for the death of many animal species;
d) under human influence, many species have changed their habitats;
e) reserves and sanctuaries are organized to preserve rare and endangered species;
f) reacclimatization of a species is its relocation to any area suitable for life;
g) the hunting law prohibits hunting of rare species.

(Answer:“yes” – b, c, d, e, g; “no” – a, e.)

6. Name examples when a person acclimatized species to new territories, and this led to disastrous results.

(Answer: rabbits, horses, donkeys and camels in Australia; mongooses in the Antilles; goats on many islands; American mink in Europe, etc.)

7. Name domestic animals whose wild ancestors were destroyed by humans.

(Answer: cow (ancestor – aurochs), dromedary camel.)

8. Name domestic animals whose wild ancestors have been preserved.

(Answer: chickens, turkeys, guinea fowl, pigs, dogs, goats, sheep, elephants.)

9. Which of the following methods of increasing the number of game animals is the most effective and why?

a) introduction of laws restricting fishing;
b) artificial breeding;
c) improvement of habitat conditions and environmental capacity.

(Answer: V . )

10*. Before the advent of man, the steppes were inhabited by a large number of herbivores. On the North American prairies, 75 million bison and 40 million pronghorn antelope grazed, not counting rodents. The Eurasian grass bushes eagerly devoured tens of millions of aurochs, wild horses and kulans, 10 million saigas, 5 million gazelles, 20 million marmots, countless hordes of small rodents and large steppe birds: bustards and little bustards. Why did the overwhelming majority of these huge herds disappear from the face of the planet?

(Answer: There is competition between humans and herbivores for land as a resource. Man destroyed the steppes and prairies, creating pastures for domestic animals and fields for agricultural crops. Steppe species, having lost their usual habitats, either became extinct or their numbers decreased significantly. Some steppe species were directly destroyed by humans.)

11*. Among the listed animals there are those that have disappeared due to human fault, those that are on the verge of extinction and those that were saved by humans from extinction. Distribute the indicated types into the appropriate columns of the table.

Saiga, dodo, kulan, Przewalski's horse, tarpan, bison, bison, Steller's cow, polar bear, Indian rhinoceros, elk, blue whale, sperm whale, sea otter, gazelle, aurochs, passenger pigeon, beaver, sable, elephant tortoise, zebra quagga , muskrat, otter, red-breasted goose, Siberian crane, cheetah, bustard, moa (giant ostrich).

Table. The role of humans in the fate of some animal species

(Answer: extinct species: dodo, tarpan, Steller's cow, aurochs, passenger pigeon, quagga zebra, moa. Species on the verge of extinction: kulan, Przewalski's horse, polar bear, Indian rhinoceros, blue whale, sea otter, goitered gazelle, muskrat, elephant tortoise, cheetah, bustard, Siberian crane, red-breasted goose. Species saved from extinction: saiga, bison, bison, elk, sperm whale, beaver, sable, otter.)

Administrative control

test in the discipline "Ecology" for first year students

1 option

1. The living shell of the Earth, i.e. a system of living organisms and the environment that functions and develops as a single whole, is

a) hydrosphere c) atmosphere b) biosphere d) lithosphere

2. Main “work”:

a) Biosphere c) Lithosphere b) Hydrosphere d) Atmosphere

3. He proposed the term “ecology”:

A) . B) E. Haeckel. C) . D) C. Darwin. E) .

4 . Ecology is a science that studies:

5. One of the tasks of ecology is to study:

A) Patterns of distribution of living organisms in space.

C) Features of the structure of a plant cell.

C) The chemical composition of natural waters.

D) Temperature regime of the lake.

E) Structures of the earth's crust.

6. Environmental factors are anthropogenic:

A) Volcanic eruption.

B) Terrain.

C) Mechanical and organic composition of the soil.

D) Construction of a hydroelectric power station.

E) Weather conditions.

7. The Red Book contains information about:

D) Climatic zones of the Earth.

E) The chemical composition of the earth's crust

8. Abiotic factors of the natural environment are:

A) Populations of hydrobionts in an aquatic ecosystem.

B) Meadow grasses.

C) Mosses and lichens of terrestrial ecosystems.

D) Chemical elements soil.

E) Predator population.

9. Biotic factors of the natural environment are:

A) Depth of the aquatic ecosystem.

B) Acidity of the soil environment.

C) Mammals of the tundra ecosystem.

D) Temperature regime of the aquatic ecosystem.

E) Altitude above sea level.

10 . In a forest ecosystem, biotic factors include:

A) Soil structure and acidity.

C) Terrain and altitude.

D. Level and temperature of groundwater. E). Herbaceous and shrubby vegetation.

11. Population is:

A) A group of organisms of the same species, occupying a certain space, capable of interbreeding freely and functioning as part of a biotic community.

B) A group of organisms of different species that occupy a specific space and function as part of a biotic community.

C) A collection of individuals of one community occupying a certain space and functioning as part of a biotic community.

D) A collection of individuals of one flock occupying a certain space and functioning as part of a biotic community.

E) A collection of individuals of the same family occupying a certain space and functioning as part of a biotic community.

12. The number of newly formed individuals in a population per unit of time is called:

A) Number. B) Density. C) Fertility. D) Mortality. E) Ecological niche.

13. The term “ecosystem” was first introduced by:

A) A. Tansley. B) Yu. Liebig. C) C. Darwin. D) E. Haeckel. E) V. Sukachev.

14. An ecosystem is called:

A) A community of plant organisms that provide the biocenosis as a whole with energy.

B) A set of autotrophic organisms.

C) A certain number of consumers providing energy transfer.

D) A community of decomposers that decompose dead organic matter.

E) A community of living organisms, united by the flow of energy and the circulation of substances.

15. Biotic factors of the natural environment include:

A) Chemical composition of water and temperature regime of the aquatic ecosystem.

B) Population of hares in the steppe ecosystem.

C) Climatic factors.

D) Depth of the aquatic ecosystem.

E) Ambient air humidity.

16. Plants in the ecosystem perform the role of:

A) Decompose organic substances into inorganic ones.

B) Synthesize organic substances from inorganic ones.

C) They are consumers of energy at trophic level II.

D) They are consumers of energy at the third trophic level.

E) They are energy consumers of the IY trophic level.

17. Sustainability of natural ecosystems Not associated with:

A) High plant productivity.

B) Intensive work of microorganisms.

C) Greater species diversity.

D) Circulation of air masses in the atmosphere.

E) High rate of circulation of nutrients.

18. The community is characterized by minimal biomass productivity:

A). A tropical forest. IN). Taiga. C).Tundra. D). Steppe. E). Deciduous forest.

19 . Communities are characterized by maximum biomass productivity:

A). A tropical forest. B).Desert. C).Alpine tundra. D). Taiga. E).Arctic tundra.

20. Plant organisms use energy in the process of their life:

A) Electric. B) Mechanical C) Thermal. D) Light. E) Sound.

21. Depletion of the ozone layer can lead to:

A) Reduction of biological diversity.

B) Increasing biological diversity.

C) Increasing the Earth's energy reserves.

D) An increase in the number of terrestrial vertebrates.

E) Global cooling.

22 . The main greenhouse gas is:

A) sulfur dioxide B) ozone C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide E) methane

23. The Earth's ozone layer is located

A) troposphere B) stratosphere C) ionosphere D) lower atmosphere E) tropopause

24. Undesirable effect in the biosphere due to refrigerators:

A) To cool the climate

B) To reduce the ozone layer of the atmosphere

C) To increase oxygen in the atmosphere

D) Lakes and open ocean.

E) Taiga and steppes

2. The lowest biomass productivity is distinguished by:

A) Belovezhskaya Pushcha Nature Reserve.

B) Orchard.

C) Sahara Desert.

D) Steppes of temperate latitudes.

E) Deciduous forest.

3. Some of the main destructive agents of the planet’s ozone shield are:

A). Heavy metals. B). Methane. C). Carbon oxides. D). Freons. E). Sulfur dioxide gases.

4 . The layer that protects the Earth's surface from hard ultraviolet rays is:

A) troposphere B) tropopause C) exosphere D) ozone layer E) air layer

5. Main air pollutants:

A) Dust, gases, mists, aerosols

B) Dust, nitrogen oxides

C) Oxides of heavy metals

D) Oxides of nitrogen, sulfur, dust

E) Dust, gases

6. Ecology is a science that studies:

A) The structure of cells of living organisms and their functions.

B) Problems of the emergence and development of life on Earth.

C) The impact of human economic activity on the environment.

D) Patterns of interaction of organisms with each other and with the environment.

E) Activities aimed at restoring biodiversity.

7. Anthropogenic sources of water pollution do not include:

A) Agriculture

B) Oil fields

C) Volcanoes and geysers

D) Industrial enterprises

E) Soil pollution

8. Soil is a bioinert substance of the biosphere, because it consists of:

A) Plants.

B) Limestones.

C) Coal.

D) Dead organics and mineral particles.

E) Igneous rock

9. Abiotic factors of the natural environment include:

A) Community of living organisms in a desert ecosystem.

B) Temperature and humidity of atmospheric air.

C) Composition of the plant community of the tundra ecosystem.

D) Phytoplankton of an aquatic ecosystem.

E) Population of hares in a forest ecosystem.

10 .There was an accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant?

a) 1963 b) 1957 c) 1986 d) 1961

11. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere:

A) Delays thermal radiation from the earth

B) Is a protective screen against ultraviolet radiation

C) Formed as a result of industrial pollution

D) Helps break down pollutants

12 . Inexhaustible natural resources:

A) Atmospheric precipitation.

B) Minerals.

C) Land resources.

D) Biological resources of the sea.

E) Terrestrial biological resources.

13. Biotic factors of the desert ecosystem:

A) Air temperature. B) Camel thorn.

C) Soil acidity. D) Wind. E) Duration of the daylight hours.

14. The causes of desertification are not:

A) overgrazing of livestock B) procurement of firewood C) salinization D) overuse of groundwater

E) forest planting

15. Lithosphere - the hard shell of the Earth, includes:

A) The Earth's crust and upper mantle

B) The earth's crust

C) The upper and lower mantle of the Earth

D) Two shells and a core

E) Solid layer 3 km deep

16. Nature conservation is:

A) A set of measures aimed at maintaining, preserving and restoring energy resources.

B) The use of natural resources to produce a certain type of final product.

C) A system of activities designed to ensure the economical exploitation of natural resources and the most effective mode of their reproduction, which does not lead to changes in the parameters of the components of the biosphere.

D) The totality of all forms of exploitation of the natural resource potential of the territories;

E) Use of natural resources in the process of social production.

17 . Urbanization is:

A) Emigration of the urban population to the countryside.

B) Increase in urban population.

C) Promotion of a healthy lifestyle.

D) Development of communications in rural areas.

18. The most important components of the ecosystem of a modern city are:

A) Well-appointed housing.

B) Roads and transport.

C) Industrial enterprises.

D) Services and entertainment sectors.

E) Green spaces.

19. One of the global environmental problems is:

A) Disposal of toxic production waste.

B) Reduction of the ozone layer.

D) Expansion of the INTERNET network.

E) Construction of high-rise buildings.

20 . Natural resources are considered exhaustible:

A) Atmospheric precipitation.

B) Earth's water resources.

C) Cosmic radiation.

D) Plant resources of the planet.

21. The most fertile soils are:

A) gray forest soils B) chestnut soils C) brown soils D) chernozems E) gray soils

27 . Exhaustible natural resources:

A). Solar radiation.

B) Wind energy.

C) Soil resources.

D) Energy of ebbs and flows.

E) Energy of the earth's interior.

28. Environmental monitoring is:

A) Continuous monitoring of the state of the natural environment.

B) Sociological survey of the population.

C) Study of the composition of the earth's crust.

D) Study of hereditary diseases.

E) Study of the species composition of terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.

29 . « The Red Book contains information about:

A) Rare species of living organisms.

B) Rare minerals.

C) Location of oil deposits.

D) Climatic zones of the Earth.

E) The chemical composition of the earth's crust.

30. AND residential development is separated from an industrial enterprise:

A) Sanitary protection zone

B) A fence

C) hedge

D) Flame transfer zone

E) Channel

Sample answers

Option 1 Option 2

1-B 1-D

2-A 2-C

3-E 3-D

4-D 4-D

5-A 5-D

6-D 6-D

7-A 7-C

8-D 8-D

9-C 9-B

10-E 10-B

11-A 11-B

12-C 12-A

13-E 13-B

14-C 14-B

15-V 15-A

16-V 16-A

17-D 17-V

18-C 18-E

19-A 19-B

20-D 20-D

21-A 21-D

22-C 22-D

23-C 23-E

24-V 24-A

25-B 25-E

26-B 26-C

27-С 27-С

28-E 28-A

29-D 29-A

30-A 30-A

Evaluation criteria:

Up to 5% - excellent

Up to 10% is good

Up to 40% - satisfactory

More than 40% - unsatisfactory

1.Who proposed the term “ecology”:

A) Aristotle;

B) E. Haeckel;

B) C. Darwin;

D) V.I. Vernadsky.

2. All factors of living and inanimate nature that affect individuals, populations, species are called:

A) biotic;

B) abiotic;

B) environmental;

B) anthropogenic.

3. The concept of “biogeocenosis” was introduced by:

A) V. Sukachev;

B) V. Vernadsky;

B) Aristotle;

B) V. Dokuchaev.

4. Mineralize organic substances of other organisms:

A) producers;

B) consumers of the 1st order;

B) consumers of the 2nd order;

B) decomposers.

5. The concept of “ecosystem” led to ecology:

A) A. Tansley;

B) E. Suess;

B) V. Sukachev;

D) V. Vernadsky.

6.Consumers in biogeocenosis:

A) consume ready-made organic substances;

B) carry out the primary synthesis of carbohydrates;

C) decompose the remains of organic substances;

D) convert solar energy.

7. Changes in the external environment lead to various changes in the population, but do not affect:

A) on the number of individuals;

B) on the age structure;

B) to the area;

D) on the sex ratio.

8.Consistently high fecundity is usually found in species:

A) well-supplied food resources;

B) the mortality rate of individuals is very high;

B) which occupy a wide range;

D) the offspring of which go through the larval stage.

9.Determine a correctly composed food chain:

A) spruce seeds – hedgehog – fox – mouse;

B) fox – hedgehog – spruce seeds – mouse;

C) mouse – spruce seeds – hedgehog – fox;

D) spruce seeds - mouse - hedgehog - fox.

10. An indicator of the prosperity of populations in an ecosystem is:

A) their high numbers;

B) connection with other populations;

B) connection between individuals of the population;

B) fluctuations in population size.

11.Organisms capable of living in various environmental conditions are called:

A) stenobionts;

B) oligobionts;

B) commensals;

B) eurybionts.

12. An abiotic environmental factor is not:

A) seasonal change in color of the white hare;

B) distribution of fruits of viburnum, rowan, oak;

C) autumn change in leaf color in deciduous trees;

D) autumn leaf fall.

13.The law of optimum means the following:

A) organisms tolerate deviations from the optimum differently;

B) any environmental factor optimally affects organisms;

C) any environmental factor has certain limits of positive influence on the body;

D) any organism optimally adapts to various environmental conditions.

14.Adaptation to the environment:

A) is the result of long-term natural selection;

B) is inherent in living organisms from the moment they are born;

C) occurs through long-term training of the body;

D) is the result of artificial selection.

15.Only in the aquatic environment did it become possible:

A) elongation of the body of organisms;

B) absorption of sunlight by organisms;

B) the appearance of five-fingered limbs;

D) the emergence of a filtration type of nutrition.

16. Of the media of life, the thinnest (in vertical distribution):

A) air;

B) soil;

B) water;

D) water and air.

A) white butterfly;

B) ladybug;

B) bark beetle;

D) wood ants.

18. Soil as a habitat includes all groups of animals, but the bulk of its biomass is formed by:

A) heterotrophic consumers of the 1st order;

B) saprophages (saprotrophs);

B) producers (autotrophs);

D) heterotrophs – consumers of the 2nd order.

19. Light-loving herbs growing under spruce are typical representatives of the following type of interactions:

A) neutralism;

B) commensalism;

B) proto-cooperation;

D) amensalism.

A) smut;

B) mistletoe;

B) broomrape;

D) dodder.

1. By how many degrees does the temperature drop for every 100 m when climbing mountains?:

0.5º

For every 100 km moving from the equator to the poles:

0.5º

2. What percentage of the mass of the earth’s crust is made up of all plants and animals?:

0.1%

3. At what height is the ozone shield that protects the Earth from solar radiation?

45 km

4. What factor determines the lower limit of life in the lithosphere:

Temperature

5. What factor determines the lower level in the atmosphere:

Air

temperature

ultra-violet rays

5. The decomposition of proteins with the formation of ammonia (ammonification) is carried out:

nodule bacteria

soil bacteria

Decomposers

6. Formation of nitrogenous compounds by fixation of atmospheric nitrogen

Carried out:

Nodule bacteria

denitrifying bacteria

producers

7. The decomposition of nitric acid salts to the formation of gaseous nitrogen (denitrification) is carried out:

Soil denitrifying bacteria

nodule bacteria

8. First introduced the concept of “biocenosis” in 1877:

K. Mobius

V. V. Dokuchaev

9. First evolutionary theory created:

R. Reaumur

K. Linnaeus

Lamarck

10. In 1840 the “law of the minimum” was established:

Yu. Liebig

11. The section of ecology that studies the relationship of an organism (species, individual) with the environment is called:

bioecology

Auteecology

paleoecology

12. The section of ecology that studies the life of communities of organisms (ecosystems, biogeocenoses) is called:

megaecology

autecology

Synecology

13. The first nature reserve in Russia was organized in 1882:

In Kamchatka

in the Caucasus

14. The term “biosphere” was first used by:

V. V. Dokuchaev

C. Adams

V. I. Vernadsky

15. The Askania-Nova Nature Reserve was founded in:

1898

16. The concept of ecosystem was introduced by:

A. Tansley

V. N. Sukachev

16. Nitrifying bacteria were discovered in 1893:

D. I. Ivanovsky;

S. P. Kostychev

S. N. Vinogradsky.

17. Double fertilization in plants was discovered in 1898:

K. A. Timiryazev;

S. G. Navashin

V. N. Sukachev.

18. N. I. Vavilov formulated the law:

biogenetic;

Homologous series of hereditary variability;

chromosomal theory of heredity;

19. In what year and by whom was chlorophyll first synthesized?:

1960, Woodward;

1961, J. Gurdon

20. Arrange the following plants in descending order according to water consumption:

corn;

21. A homogeneous area of ​​the surface, with a certain composition of living and inert components, united by metabolism and energy into a single natural complex, is called:

landscape;

Biogeocenosis;

formation.

23. Distribute the plants in descending order of life expectancy:

English oak

large-leaved linden

kelp

juniper

tree fern

spruce

24. Which plant has the highest coefficient of use of sunlight during photosynthesis:

Chlorella 70%

potato

25. Name the total length of the rivers of Crimea:

5996 km

25. Name the most abundant rivers of Crimea

Black

Biyuk-Karasu

Belbek

26. What is the length of the North Crimean Canal

465 km

27. Are there fresh lakes in Crimea? If so, name them.

Small lakes on the lakes of the main mountain range

Ak-Mechet lake on Tarkhankut

28. What is “Minamata disease”?

An environmental disease caused by mercury poisoning through fish caught in the bay of the same name.

29. When was Greenpeace created?:

1972

30. The Chernobyl disaster occurred in:

1986

31. Formulate the biogenetic law of F. Muller-E. Haeckel

The individual development of an individual (ontogenesis) in general terms repeats the main stages of development of its ancestral forms (phylogeny)

32.What is the “greenhouse effect” and what is its cause? What could be its consequences? Do you see any possibility of eliminating it?

A gradual increase in the climate temperature on the planet as a result of the accumulation of carbon dioxide and other gases in the atmosphere, which, like the glass of a greenhouse or greenhouse, transmit the sun's rays and prevent thermal radiation from the surface of the Earth. The reason for the greenhouse effect is the inability of Earth’s plants to process all the “additional” anthropogenic carbon dioxide released as a result of human and other activities.

33. Explain why rivers have banks of different steepness?

Rivers, as a result of the deflecting effect of the Earth's rotation around its axis, tend to shift their course in the northern hemisphere to the right, and in the southern hemisphere to the left. As a result, the rivers of the Northern Hemisphere usually have a steep right bank and a flat bank on the left (the law of river bed migration.)

34. What organisms form the first trophic level in aquatic ecosystems?:

Tadpoles

Mussels

Fry

Cyanobacteria

Diatoms

36. How many coastal aquatic complexes are reserved in Crimea?:

31

37. Which type of irrigation is the most environmentally friendly from your point of view? Justify your answer.

sprinkler "frigate"

sprinkler "DDA100-MA"

along the furrows

Drip irrigation

39. Formulate the theorem of G. F. Gause. Give examples.

Two species cannot exist in the same area unless they are biological needs identical. (The muskrat replaced the muskrat)

40. Which method of water disinfection is considered the most progressive today?

Chlorination

Ultraviolet irradiation

Ozonation

41 Chemical substance that attracts animals and insects is called:

Attractant

42. Growing plants without soil in moist air by periodically spraying the roots with nutrient solutions is:

Hydroponics

aeration tank

aeroponics

44. How much biomass energy is consumed during the transition from one trophic level to another? (R. Lindemann's energy pyramid law)

10 %

45. Repeatedly repeated replacement of one biocenosis by another, change of dominant species based on competition is called:

reclamation

succession

resistance

46. ​​What are the similarities and differences between an ecosystem and biogeocenosis? Justify your answer.

Ecosystem and biogeocenosis - in both cases it is an interacting set of living organisms and the environment. But an ecosystem is a general concept (swamps, an aquarium, an anthill, a biosphere, in general - all these are ecosystems). Biogeocenosis is an ecosystem limited only by phytocenosis that gives life to animals. That is, biogeocenosis is part of an ecosystem.

47. All the water on the planet goes through cycles of splitting into plant cells, and recovery in animal and plant cells for approximately:

2,000,000 years

48. All atmospheric oxygen passes through living matter in approximately:

2000 years

49. Ecosystem productivity is determined by:

Biomass growth

number of consumers

absence of decomposers

50. Where are the largest reserves of water on Earth?

There are 1.5 billion in the World Ocean. km³

In the bowels of the earth there are 1.3 billion. km³

in glaciers

in icebergs

51. How much fresh water is there on Earth?

100 million km³

10 million km³

35 million km³

52. Where are the main fresh water reserves?

In glaciers, polar snows and icebergs (96%)

53. How many liters of oxygen does an adult consume per day?

700-900 l

54. How many liters of oxygen does a passenger car consume per 1000 km?

300,000 l

55. Anthropogenic factors include:

Air temperature and humidity

Deforestation, swamp drainage, air pollution

testent.ru Page 106.09.2016

Handout tests on ecology with answers

Option 1

1. Factors in the inorganic environment that influence the life and distribution of living organisms are called

A) Abiotic.

B) Alive.

C) Anthropogenic.

D) Biotic.

E) Limiting.

2. Types of adaptation of organisms:

A) Ethological species.

B) Only physiological types.

C) Only morphological species

D) Morphological, ethological, physiological.

E) Legal properties of organisms.

3. Who introduced the term “ecological system” into science?

A) Vernadsky.

B) Suess.

C) Tansley.

D) Darwin.

E) Haeckel.

4. Interaction between populations, in which one of them suppresses the other without benefiting itself

A) mutualism.

B) amensalism.

C) commensalism.

D) proto-cooperation.

5. Mind Sphere:

A) Technosphere.

B) Biosphere.

C) Cryosphere.

D) Stratosphere.

E) Noosphere.

6. Substances that contribute to the destruction of the ozone layer:

A) Inorganic substances.

B) Carcinogenic substances.

C) Freons.

D) Heavy metals.

E) Herbicides.

7. Types of environmental management:

A) General and individual.

B) State and individual.

C) General and special.

D) General and state.

E) State and special.

8. The flora of the Earth consists of:

A) 700 thousand plant species.

C) 400 thousand plant species.

C) 300 thousand plant species.

D) 500 thousand plant species.

E) 100 thousand plant species.

9. Conversion of organic compounds from inorganic ones due to light energy:

A) Photosynthesis.

B) Photoperiodism.

C) Homeostasis.

D) Climax.

E) Succession.

10. The science that studies the character and behavior of animals

A) Toxicology.

B) Ethology.

C) Ecology.

D) Zoology.

E) Biology.

11. Autotrophic organisms capable of producing organic substances

from inorganic:

A) Consumers.

B) Lithotrophs.

C) Saprophages.

D) Reducers.

E) Producers.

12. Omnivorous organisms:

A) Detritivores.

B) Phagocytes.

C) Polyphages.

D) Monophages.

E) Stenophages.

13. Species with limited distribution areas

A) Ubiquists.

B) Cosmopolitans.

C) Relics.

D) Violents.

E) Endemics.

14. The theory about the increase in population in geometric progression was proposed by:

A) Yu. Odum

B) T. Malthus

C) K. Wiley

D) C. Darwin

E) V.I. Vernadsky

15. Type of standing water?

A) Lotic type.

B) Streams.

C) Wetlands.

D) Rivers.

E) Tape type.

16. A layer of the atmosphere located at a distance from the Earth of 9-15 km:

A) Troposphere.

B) Stratosphere.

C) Ionosphere.

D) Mesosphere.

E) Hydrosphere.

17. Unified measure of water use in populated areas:

A) L\day.

B) M³\min.

C) M³\day.

D) M³\year.

E) L\ year.

18. Measures to restore disturbed areas:

A) Stagnation.

B) Stratification.

C) Monitoring.

D) Reclamation.

E) Recreation.

19. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is:

A) 21%

B) 78%

C) 0.93%

D) 0.03%

E) 0.1%

20. Monitoring of individual production:

A) National.

B) Predictable.

C) Local.

D) District.

E) Global.

21. Bayanaul National Park is located on the territory of:

A) Pavlodar region.

B) Akmola region.

C) Karaganda region.

D) South Kazakhstan region.

E) Almaty region.

A) Four-striped runner.

C) muskrat, wild ass, yellow heron.

C) Small swan.

D) Red wolf, European mink, Kyzylkum argali.

E) Snow leopard, lynx, bat.

23. The engineer who coined the term acid rain:

A) G. Crutzen.

B) Robert Smith.

C) V.I. Vernadsky.

D) Sh. Raulap.

E) Isachenko.

24. Who is this Homo sapiens?

A) Man is a monkey.

B) A reasonable person.

C) Sinanthropus.

D) Wild man.

E) Pithecanthropus.

25. A reserve that is part of biosphere reserves, the functioning of which is regulated by UNESCO:

A) Almaty

B) West Altai

C) Naurzumsky

D) Ustyurt

E) Aksu – Dzhabaglinsky

Option 2

1. The impact of human activities on living organisms or their habitat?

A) Abiotic factors.

B) Anthropogenic factors.

C) Biotic factors.

D) Social factors.

E) Limiting factors.

2. Autotrophic organisms include:

A) Birds.

B) Animals.

C) Predators.

D) Mushrooms.

E) Plants.

3. The totality of all plant organisms

A) ecotype.

B) biofauna.

C) society.

D) fauna.

E) flora.

4. The doctrine of the noosphere was developed by:

A) Odum.

B) Vernadsky.

C) Darwin.

D) Harper.

E) Dokuchaev.

5. The sphere of reason, the highest stage of development of the biosphere, when intelligent human activity becomes the main determining factor in its development:

A) Technosphere.

B) Geosphere.

C) Anthroposvera.

D) Exosphere.

E) Noosphere.

6. Hard coal:

A) Biogenic substance.

B) Inert substance.

C) Radioactive substance.

D) Scattered atoms.

E) Bioinert substance.

7. Atmospheric pollutants are divided according to their state of aggregation:

A) Hot and cold.

B) Chemical and physical.

C) Gaseous, liquid and solid substances.

D) Gaseous, liquid and aerosol.

E) Organic and inorganic.

8. The main reason for the destruction of the ozone layer is:

A) Animal biological waste.

B) Emissions from industrial enterprises.

C) Freons.

D) Burning fossil fuels.

E) Carcinogenic substances.

9. Main directions of ecology?

A) Physical, chemical, cosmic.

B) Bio-, hydro-, demecology.

C) Hydro-, atmospheric, lithoecology.

D) Zoo-, phyto-, anthroecology.

E) Out-, syn-, de-ecology.

10. In what year was ecology founded as a science:

A) 1954

B) 1904

C) 1854

D) 1860

E) 1860

11. Organisms using one food source.

A) Detritivores.

B) Saprophages.

C) Polyphages.

D) Monophages.

E) Phytophages.

12. Light-loving plants:

A) Sciophytes.

B) Heliophytes.

C) Xerophytes.

D) Psammophytes.

E) Halophytes.

13. Species widespread on the planet:

A) Endemics.

B) Ubiquists.

C) Cosmopolitans.

D) Violents.

E) Relics.

14. Types of fossil animals that have survived to this day:

A) Endemics.

B) Cosmopolitans.

C) Violents.

D) Ubiquists.

E) Relics.

15. The population increases according to the law:

A) Shelford.

B) Arithmetic progression.

C) Geometric progression.

D) Liebig.

E) Tolerance.

16. The main limiting factor in the settlement of ecosystems at high latitudes, deserts and high mountains are:

A) Biotic factors.

B) Chemical factors.

C) Anthropogenic factors.

D) Abiotic factors.

E) Edophic factors.

17. The limit of life in the atmosphere:

A) 200-230 km.

B) 22-25 km.

C) 7-10 km.

D) 30-300 km.

E) 10-15 km.

18. The most common type of direct regulation of water resources:

A) Construction of reservoirs.

B) Construction of canals.

C) Water intake using pumps.

D) Changes in river courses.

E) Wastewater collection

19. Determine what type of pollution is it - radiation, thermal, light, electromagnetic, noise pollution?

A) Physical.

B) Natural.

C) Geological.

D) Geographical.

E) Chemical.

20. Natural resources necessary for human life:

A) Food.

B) Ecological.

C) Energy.

D) Forest.

E) Raw materials.

21. Reserve included by UNESCO in the reserve of wetlands of international importance:

A) Almaty.

B) Kurgaldzhinsky.

C) Aksu-Dzhabaglinsky.

D) Alakolsky.

E) Western Altai.

22. What percentage of the territory of the Republic of Kazakhstan is occupied by specially protected natural areas:

A) 21.

AT 5.

C) 3.

D) 1.

E) 13.

23. MPC SO 2, mg\m³:

A) 0.5.

B) 0.005.

C) 0.0015

D) 0.6

E) 0.4

24. Physico-chemical processes of wastewater treatment:

A) Oxidation and extraction.

B) Natural cleaning.

C) Neutralization and ozonization.

D) Flotation and extraction.

E) Sedimentation and filtration.

25. A reserve of international importance, created to protect goitered gazelle and mouflon:

A) Nurzumsky.

B) Markakolsky.

C) Alakolsky.

D) Ustyurt.

E) Aksu-Dzhabaglinsky.

Option 3

1.What was done at the first stage of environmental development?

A) Many species of animals were collected

C) The study of nature is replaced by the dominance of scholasticism and theology.

C) Learned to use fire and tools.

D) The cycle of substances has been studied.

E) Factual material about living conditions has been accumulated and systematized

living organisms.

2. The concept of “ecology” first came into circulation in the year

A) 1880

B) 1868

C) 1968

D) 1830

E) 1820

3. A set of individuals of the same species inhabiting a certain space:

A) Ecosystem.

B) Phytoncides.

C) Hydrobionts.

D) Biotope.

E) Population.

4.Dynamic indicators of populations:

A) Demographic structure.

B) Number.

C) Fertility, mortality

D) Density

E) Species range

5.Toward exhaustion natural resources include:

A) Space.

C) Flora, fauna, soil.

C) Solar radiation.

D) Waters of the world's oceans.

E) Atmospheric air.

6. Products resulting from primary atmospheric pollution:

A) Primary pollution.

B) Instant.

C) Secondary pollution.

D) One-time.

E) Simultaneous.

7.Ozone layer depletion was first discovered:

A) Above North Pole, 1950

B) Over Australia, 1980

C) Over Africa, 1975

D) Over North America, 1945

E) Above Antractis, 1985

8. When the accident occurred Chernobyl nuclear power plant:

A) In April 1986

B) In August 1991

C) In September 1960

D) In ​​March 1975

E) In May 1996

9. The edaphic factor is:

A) Destruction of species.

B) Human activity.

C) Soil conditions.

D) Climate change.

E) Relationships between organisms.

10.Organisms capable of tolerating significant temperature fluctuations:

A) Stenothermic.

B) Stenobionts.

C) Poikilohydric.

D) Oxybionts.

E) Eurythermic.

11.Plants growing in conditions of increased moisture:

A) Xerophytes.

B) Hygrophytes.

C) Psamophytes.

D) Mesophytes.

E) Halophytes.

12.Artificial ecosystems arising as a result of human agricultural activities:

A) Agroecosystem.

B) Biocenosis.

C) Urosystem.

D) Biogeocenosis.

E) Biotope.

13. Consecutive change of biocenoses:

A) Station.

B) Fluctuation.

C) Oscillation.

D) Succession.

E) Homeostasis.

14. The term “biocenosis” was introduced:

A) In 1990

B) In 2003

C) In 2000

D) In ​​1877

E) In 1999

15.Water cycle speed:

A) 1000 years.

B) 2000 years.

C) 2 million years.

D) 300 years.

E) 1.5 billion years

16.Aggregative state of water:

A) Liquid and solid.

B) Liquid and miscellaneous.

C) Liquid, gaseous and miscellaneous.

D) Liquid, solid, gaseous.

E) Liquid and gaseous.

17.Biosphere monitoring:

A) National.

B) Global.

C) Regional.

D) Local.

E) Local.

18.National environmental monitoring system:

A) National.

B) Global.

C) Regional.

D) District.

E) Local.

19.According to the degree of purification, industrial waste is divided into:

A) Those undergoing purification, those not undergoing purification.

B) Disposable cleaning field.

C) Periodic and non-periodic.

D) Organized and unorganized.

E) Hot and cold.

20.What types of plants and animals belong to the second category of the Red Book:

A) Endangered species.

B) Restored species.

C) Unknown species.

D) Rare species.

E) Species that are declining in numbers.

21. What types of plants and animals belong to the fourth category of the Red Book:

A) Restored species.

B) Declining species.

C) Unknown species.

D) Irretrievably extinct species.

E) Rare species.

22. In what year was the Western Altai Nature Reserve founded:

A) In 1992

B) In 1978

C) In 1993

D) In ​​1974

E) In 1998

23.What role do predators play in communities:

A) Increase the number of victims.

C) Reduce casualties.

C) Reduce the number of victims.

D) Regulate the size and condition of the prey population.

E) Do not have any effect on the number of victims.

24. Industrial emissions according to the method of entering the atmosphere are divided into:

A) Chemical and physical.

B) Cold and hot.

C) Organic and inorganic.

D) Organized and unorganized.

E) Gaseous, liquid and solid.

25.What is the temperature at an altitude of 500-600 km. Found in the thermosphere

A) Below 1500°C

B) 1500°C and above.

C) 650°C

D) 800°С

E) 150°C

Option 4

1. Ecology, revealing general patterns life organization,

according to N.F. Reismer is called:

A) general.

B) applied.

C) social.

D) global.

E) theoretical.

2. The subject of research in ecology is:

A) Species composition.

B) Gas composition.

C) Macrosystems (population, biocenosis) and their dynamics.

D) Microsystems.

E) Microorganisms.

3. Tolerance is the ability of the body

A) To withstand environmental changes by the body.

C) Form local forms.

C) Vital activity of the body.

D) Adapt to strictly defined conditions.

E) Adapt to new conditions.

4. A collection of individuals of the same species inhabiting a relatively isolated territory:

A) Population.

B) Biocenosis.

C) Community.

D) View.

E) Biogeocenosis.

5. An indicator reflecting the number of animals or the number of plants in the area:

A) Density.

B) Number.

C) Gain.

D) Mortality.

E) Fertility.

6. Population distribution area:

A) Ecotop.

B) Environmental factor.

C) Area.

D) Ecological niche.

E) Zoogenic factor.

7. Albedo is:

A) Reflectivity.

B) The ability to synthesize.

C) The ability to absorb.

D) Increase in temperature.

E) Selective permeability.

8. The “greenhouse effect” causes:

A) Climate cooling.

B) Formation of ozone holes.

C) Climate warming.

D) Acid fog.

E) Acid rain.

9.Where are the main fresh water reserves located:

A) In the world's oceans.

B) In the hydrosphere.

C) In the lithosphere.

D) In ​​rivers.

E) In glaciers.

10.The highest biodiversity is found in:

A) Taige.

B) Steppes.

C) Tundra.

D) Desert.

E) Tropical forest.

11.Spatial structure in the plant part of the biocenosis:

A) Hierarchy.

B) Tiering.

C) Mosaic.

D) Cyclicity.

E) Adaptation.

12. The spatial structure of the biocenosis, manifested in horizontal changes in vegetation and fauna:

A) Mosaic.

B) Violence.

C) Adaptation.

D) Hierarchy.

E) Cyclicity.

13. The layer of the atmosphere, which is located at an altitude of up to 20 km from the surface of the earth, is:

A) Mesosphere.

B) Stratosphere.

C) Exosphere.

D) Troposphere.

E) Ionosphere.

A) 0.03%

B) 0.93%

C) 0.1%

D) 78.08%

E) 20.95%

15.What method of wastewater treatment involves the sorption of pollutants?

active mud:

A) Mechanical.

B) Biochemical.

C) Physico-chemical.

D) Ion exchange.

E) Neutralization.

16.What is used in biological wastewater treatment?

A) Adeorbents.

B) Aerotank.

C) Neutralizer.

D) Adeorber.

E) Cation resin.

17.Monitoring carried out at the international level:

A) Local.

B) Regional.

C) Predictable.

D) Global.

E) National.

18.What is the destructive function of living matter in the biosphere:

A) In creating favorable environmental conditions.

C) In creating the mineral base of the soil.

C) In the creation of atmospheric compounds.

D) In ​​the decomposition and mineralization of organic matter.

E) The ability to concentrate inorganic substances.

19.In what year was the term “monitoring” introduced?

A) 1994

B) 1972

C) 1984

D) 1965

E) 1991

20. Reserve created to preserve the saiga population:

A) Naurzumsky.

B) Markakolsky.

C) Alakolsky.

D) Barsakelmessky.

E) Almaty.

21.Where is the natural monument “Goose Flight” located:

A) In the Magnitau region.

B) In the Karaganda region.

C) In Kostanay region.

D) In ​​Pavladar region.

E) In the East Kazakhstan region.

22.What does nature conservation mean?

A) A set of works aimed at protecting the environment from pollution.

C) Maintaining the balance of ecological systems.

C) Clean environment.

D) Protecting the environment by using cleaning devices.

E) Protection of the biosphere and atmosphere from pollution.

23. Relationship between species when one species participates in the distribution of another:

A) Trophic.

B) Topical.

C) Phonic.

D) Factory.

E) Symbiosis.

24. Fresh water reserves in nature are:

A) 21%

B) 30%

C) 3%

D) 10%

E) 90%

25. The transpiration coefficient is:

A) Quality of transpiration water to obtain 1 kg. dry matter.

C) Separation of atmosphere and water in an ecosystem.

C) The amount of transpiration water used to moisten the substance.

D) Physical hydration.

E) The amount of transpiration water to obtain 1 kg. dry matter.

Option 5

1.Creator of the doctrine of natural selection of organisms:

A) Vernadsky V.

B) Shelford W.

C) Darwin Ch.

D) Lindeman R.

E) Tansley E.

2. Adaptive reactions of organisms are called:

A) Tolerance.

B) Homeostasis.

D) Limiting factors.

E) Adaptation.

3. What factors include the totality of chemical, physical and mechanical properties of soil:

A) edaphic.

B) biotic.

C) anthropogenic.

D) chemical.

E) physical.

4. Layer of the atmosphere covered by the biosphere:

A) Stratosphere.

B) Troposphere.

C) Magnetosphere.

D) Mesosphere.

E) Ionosphere.

5. Where is the ozone layer:

A) In the hydrosphere.

B) In the stratosphere.

C) In the troposphere.

D) In ​​the biosphere.

E) In the pedosphere.

6. Gas concentration in the air in descending order:

A) Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide.

B) Nitrogen, oxygen, argon, CO2.

C) Nitrogen, Ar, O2.

D) Oxygen, NO, Ar.

E) Oxygen, nitrogen, argon.

7. What substances are called carcinogens?

A) Causing allergic diseases.

B) Causing chronic diseases.

C) Causing infectious diseases.

D) Causing cancer.

E) Causing tuberculosis.

8. The Law of the Republic of Kazakhstan on Specially Protected Natural Areas was created:

A) 2000

B) 1997
C) 1990
D) 1986
E) 1978

9. One of the first autecologists who connected the life activity of various organisms with environmental conditions and information about their distribution:

A) Linnaeus.

B) Malthus.

C) Lavoisier.

D) Lamarck.

E) Haeckel.

10. Plants whose growth requires increased moisture:

A) Hygrophytes.

B) Halophytes.
C) Mesophytes.
D) Psammophytes.
E) Xerophytes.

11. Survival curves are built for:

A) Reduced immigration of individuals.
B) Regulation of population density.
C) Regulation of mortality of individuals.
D) Regulation of the birth rate of individuals.
E) Studying patterns of population dynamics.

12. Introducing species into new habitats:

A) Oscillation.
B) Fluctuation.
C) Emigration.
D) Introduction.
E) Migration.

13. Population size is:

A) Number of species in a given space.
B) Number of species per unit area.
C) The number of individuals per unit area.
D) The number of species included in it.
E) The number of individuals included in it.

14. Anthropogenic ecosystems include:

A) Agroecosystems, hydroecosystems.
B) Artificial ecosystems, urban ecosystems.
C) Urban ecosystems, hydroecosystems.
D) Agroecosystems, urban ecosystems.
E) Specially protected areas.

15. Bodies that are the result of the joint activity of living organisms and geological processes:

A) Living matter.
B) Radioactive substance.
C) Inert substance.
D) Bioinert substance.
E) Nutrient.

16. Upper layer of the lithosphere:

A) Chemical compounds.
B) Solar energy.
C) Air.
D) Water.
E) Soil.

A) 0.1%
B) 0.03%
C) 78%
D) 21%
E) 0.93%

18. Oxidation products of primary emissions:

A) Formaldehyde.
B) Oxides of sulfur and nitrogen.
C) Freons.
D) Photooxidants.
E) Benzopyrene.

19. National environmental monitoring system:

A) National.
B) District.
C) Regional.
D) Local.
E) Global.

20. What percentage of agricultural land in Kazakhstan is marginal?

(humus less than 4%):

A) 40.
B) 50.
C) 60.
D) 30.
E) 70.

21. The level of the Aral Sea began to decrease:

A) Since the 60s.
B) Since the 50s.
C) Since the 90s.
D) Since the 70s.
E) Since the 40s.

22. UN Environment Program:

A) UNESCO.
B) FAO.
C) IAEA.
D) WHO.
E) UNEP.

23. The food (trophic) chain in ecosystems is:

A) Eating some organisms by others.
B) Coexistence of producers and decomposers.
C) Coexistence of consumers and decomposers.
D) Transfer of food energy from its source through a number of organisms (by eating).
E) Transfer of food from producers to decomposers.

24. The main properties of ecosystems include:

A) Succession, climax, stability, self-purification.
B) The ability to carry out the circulation of substances.
C) Homeostasis, productivity, succession, menopause, circulation of substances, stability, self-purification.
D) Homeostasis, productivity, stability, self-purification.
E) Self-purification, stability, circulation of substances.

25. The bottom of the ocean or sea as a habitat for bottom organisms:

A) Littoral.
B) Planctoral.
C) Bental.
D) Sublittoral.
E) Pelagial.

Option 6

1. Three main directions of ecology:

A) Bioecology, hydroecology, de-ecology.

B) Hydroecology, atmoecology, lithoecology.

C) Zooecology, phytoecology, anthropoecology.

D) Autecology, synecology, de-ecology.

E) Physical, chemical, biological.

2. Species that determine the state of the environment:

A) Patients.
B) Indicators.
C) Dominants.
D) Edifiers.
E) Violents.

3. A group of factors determined by the impact of human activity on the environment:

A) Mechanical factors.
B) Space factors.
C) Physical factors.
D) Anthropogenic factors.
E) Climatic factors.

4. According to Vernadsky, free energy carriers are:

A) Animals.
B) Man.
C) Living organic matter.
D) Plants.
E) Microorganisms.

5. Albedo is:

A) Selective permeability.
B) Ability to absorb.
C) Increase in temperature.
D) The ability to synthesize.
E) Reflectivity.

6. Destruction and removal of upper fertile rocks by wind or water flows:

A) Succession.
B) Reclamation.
C) Erosion.
D) Land reclamation.
E) Irrigation.

7. Number of individuals of a species per unit area:

A) Population density.
B) Population size.
C) Population abundance.
D) Fertility.
E) Species diversity.

8. The Convention on Long-Range Transboundary Air Pollution was signed by:

A) In 1950
B) In 1940
C) In 1960
D) In ​​1990
E) In 1979

9. The subject of ecology is:

A) Study of the state of the hydrosphere.
B) Study of the ecological state of the biosphere.
C) Study of the ecological state of organisms.
D) Study of the state of the atmosphere.
E) Study of the state of the lithosphere.

10. What factors limit the course of some process, phenomenon or existence of an organism:

A) Limiting.
B) Extreme.
C) Climatic.
D) Abiotic.
E) Biotic.

11. An ecological niche is:

A) The totality of conditions for the existence of a population.
B) The totality of conditions for the existence of organisms.
C) Conditions for the existence of species.
D) Conditions for the existence of the population.
E) the place of the species in nature, mainly in the biocenosis, including both its position in space and its functional role in the community, and its relationship to the abiotic conditions of existence.

12. Omnivorous organisms:

A) Stenophages.
B) Phagocytes.
C) Monophages.
D) Polyphages.
E) Detritivores.

13. Population fluctuations are:

A) Introduction.
B) Migration.
C) Oscillation.
D) Emigration.
E) Fluctuation.

14. A comprehensive study of groups of organisms that constitute a unity and their relationship with the environment serves as the subject of:

A) Autecology.
B) Scientific ecology.
C) Synecology.
D) Demecology.
E) Bioecology.

15. Oxygen cycle rate:

A) 300 years.
B) 100 years.
C) 2 million years.
D) 1 billion years.
E) 2000 years.

16. Atmospheric pollutants are divided into:

A) Industrial and mechanical.
B) Household and agricultural.
C) Natural and anthropogenic.
D) Organizational and non-organizational.
E) Gas and solid.

17. Meteorological factors contributing to pollution are:

A) Natural processes affecting air pollution.
B) Atmospheric pollution under the influence of meteorological factors.

C) System of air pollution measures.
D) Pollution by meteorological phenomena and processes.
E) The influence of meteorological factors on air pollution.

18. The maximum permissible concentration of substances in the aquatic environment is measured:

A) mg\l.
B) kg\kg.
C) mg\g.
D) mg\m.
E) mg\kg.

19. Environmental monitoring includes:

A) Research and regional.
B) Experimental and exploratory.
C) Global and experimental.
D) National and research.
E) Global, regional, local

20. International Atomic Energy Agency:

A) UNEP.
B) IAEA.
C) FAO.
D) WHO.
E) IUCN.

21. In which waters of Kazakhstan are the main pollutants copper, oil products, zinc, nitrates, phenol, fluorine and some pesticides:

A) In groundwater.
B) In melt waters.
C) In groundwater.
D) In ​​surface waters.
E) In lakes.

22. What does nature conservation mean?

A) Maintaining the balance of ecological systems.
B) A set of works aimed at protecting the environment from pollution.
C) Protection of the biosphere and atmosphere from pollution.
D) Clean environment.
E) Protecting the environment by using cleaning devices.

23. Who was the first to substantiate the essence of the biological cycle of the main element of organic matter - carbon:

A) Malthus.T.
B) Lavoisier.A.
C) Lamarck.J.
D) Haeckel.E.
E) Linnaeus.K.

24. Homeostasis is:

A) Not a rigid equilibrium of the ecological system.
B) Ecological system equilibrium.
C) Disturbance of the equilibrium of the ecological system.
D) Constancy of equilibrium of a mobile ecosystem.
E) Rigid equilibrium of the ecological system.

25. The process of eliminating wastewater odor is called:

A) Deodorization.
B) Coagulation.
C) Sorption.
D) Crystallization.
E) Flotation.

Option 7

1. Ecology, which studies relationships in the “human society-nature” system, is called according to N.F. Reimers:

A) social.
B) applied.
C) theoretical.
D) general.
E) global.

2. The living environments of organisms do not include:

A) Soil.
B) Bodies of living organisms.
C) Water.
D) Ground-air.
E) Anthropogenic.

3. Shade-loving plants:

A) Phytocenosis.
B) Halophytes.
C) Photoperiodism.
D) Heliophytes.
E) Sciophytes.

4. The doctrine of the biosphere was developed by:

A) V.I. Vernadsky.
B) I.P Pavlov.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) K. Linnaeus.
E) J.B. Lamarck.

5. The biosphere is:

A) The gaseous shell of the earth.
B) The area of ​​distribution of life.
C) The hard shell of the earth.
D) The upper layer of the atmosphere.
E) The water shell of the earth.

6. Noise refers to pollution:

A) mechanical

B) viral
C) physical

D) biological
E) chemical

7. Combination of gaseous and solid impurities with fog or aerosol haze from vehicles:

A) Smog.
B) Detritus.
C) Endemic.
D) Repellent.
E) Technosphere.

8. Under favorable abiotic factors, population density may decrease due to:

A) Wind.

B) Light.

C) Predators.

D) Climate.

E) Vegetation.

9. The community of organisms inhabiting a given territory is called:

A) Biocenosis.

B) Ecosystem.

C) Population.

D) Biogeocenosis.

E) Ecotope.

10. Plants of dry habitats:

A) Mesophytes.
B) Halophytes.
C) Hygrophytes.
D) Xerophytes.
E) Psammophytes.

11. Place of the species in nature:

A) Locus.
B) Area.
C) Ecotop.
D) Biotope.
E) Ecological niche.

12. Species with limited distribution areas:

A) Violents.
B) Relics.
C) Endemics.
D) Ubiquists.
E) Cosmopolitans.

13. The population increases according to the law:

A) Liebig.
B) Shelford.
C) Arithmetic progression.
D) Geometric progression.
E) Tolerance.

14. What area does the hydrosphere occupy in the globe:

A) 100%
B) 90%
C) 39%
D) 71%

E) 12%

15. Microbiogenic biotic environmental factors include:

A) Environment.
B) Man.
C) Microbes and viruses.
D) Green spaces.
E) Animals.

16. What layers does the atmosphere consist of?

A) Lithosphere, pedosphere.
B) Hydrosphere, ionosphere.
C) Stratosphere, troposphere, ionosphere.
D) Pedosphere, hydrosphere.
E) Biosphere, noosphere.

17. A systematized quantitative and qualitative set of information on natural resources is:

A) Bonitet.
B) Accounting.
C) Certificate.
D) Help.
E) Cadastre.

A) 0.03%
B) 0.1%
C) 21.0%
D) 0.93%
E) 78%

19. Biological risk factors affecting human health include:

A) Quality food.
B) Natural and man-made pathogenic microorganisms.
C) Environmental quality.
D) Infectious diseases.
E) Natural pathogenic microorganisms.

20. Monitoring of a single production:

A) Global.
B) Local.
C) District.
D) Predictable.
E) National.

21. The entry of various pollutants into the atmosphere of the territory of Kazakhstan from industrial sources in recent years is:

A) Up to 5 million tons.
B) From 3 million to 6 million tons.
C) More than 4 million tons.
D) About 4 million tons.
E) About 5 million tons.

22. Species of plants and animals belonging to the fourth category of the Red Book:

A) Declining species.
B) Irretrievably extinct species.
C) Rare species.
D) Unknown species.
E) Restored species.

23. Zoocenosis is:

24. Resource-saving technology is classified as:

A) Full use of natural resources.
B) Rational environmental management.
C) Irrational use of natural resources.
D) Strict restrictions on emissions within limits.
E) Reuse of production waste.

25. Environmental monitoring:

A) Environmental monitoring.

B) Release of pollutants into the environment.

C) Treatment of industrial emissions.

D) Release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
E) The entry of plant residues into the soil.

Option 8

1. A typical cactus is a plant:

A) succulent
B) mesophyte
C) xerophyte
D) sirophyte
E) hygrophyte

2. Organisms of one species that are sufficiently well adapted to local conditions form:

A) ecotype
B) fauna
C) society
D) flora
E) type

A) E. Haeckel.
B) Tunnels.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Suess.
E) V. Vernadsky.

4. According to the teachings of Vernadsky, the biosphere consists of the following components:

A) Living and nonliving.
B) Bioinert.
C) Living, inert, bioinert, biogenic.
D) Inert and organic.
E) Organic and inorganic.

5. Volume of fresh water in the hydrosphere:

A) 25%

B) 3%

C) 0.5%

D) 0.3%

E) 17%

6. Most of the territory of Kazakhstan belongs to natural area:

A) Desert.

B) Forests.

C) Forest-steppes.

D) Semi-desert.

E) Steppes.

7. Type of specially protected natural area where farming is permitted Agriculture and is produced environmental activities:

A) Wildlife sanctuaries.

B) Reserves.

C) Recreation areas.

D) City squares.

E) National parks.

8. The Antarctic Treaty between the USSR, USA, England, France and other countries was signed:

A) In 1980

B) In 1990

C) In 1959

D) In ​​1970

E) In 1960

9. The golden age of ecology was considered:

A) XX century

B) XVI century

C) XVIII century.

D) XVII century.

E) XV century

10. What is the name of the process of synthesis of organic compounds from inorganic ones using light energy:

A) Succession.
B) Homeostasis.
C) Photosynthesis.
D) Photoperiodism.
E) Synthesis.

11. Autotrophs:

A) Insects
B) Animals.
C) Worms.
D) Mushrooms.
E) Plants

12. Types of fossil animals that have survived to this day:

A) Violents.
B) Cosmopolitans.
C) Ubiquists.
D) Endemics.
E) Relics.

13. Statistical characteristics of the population:

A) Number, density, biomass.
B) Number and age composition, birth rate.
C) Number (density), biomass, age and sex composition.
D) Population biomass, fertility, mortality.
E) Density, biomass, age composition.

14. Dynamic population indicators:

A) Rates of births, deaths and emigration.
B) Fertility, mortality, rate of immigration and emigration.

C) Rate of immigration and emigration.
D) Fertility and mortality of organisms.
E) Values ​​of specific fertility and mortality.

15. Consecutive change of biocenoses:

A) Dynamics.
B) Homeostasis.
C) Succession.
D) Station.
E) Sublimation.

16. The largest nuclear test site in Kazakhstan:

A) Taisoigan.

B) Azgir.

C) Naryn.

D) Semipalatinsk.

E) Kapustin Yar.

17. A system of living organisms and surrounding inorganic bodies, interconnected by the flow of energy and the circulation of substances:

A) Biocenosis.
B) Ecosystem.
C) Biogeocenosis.
D) Biome.
E) Biotope.

18. The water cycle includes:

A) In the small cycle of substances.
B) In the biogenic cycle of elements.
C) In the biochemical cycle of elements.
D) Into the great gyre.
E) Into the biological cycle.

19. Which method of water purification is neutralization?

A) Thermal.
B) Physical.
C) Physico-chemical.
D) Chemical.
E) Biochemical.

20. Area of ​​moderately degraded lands in Kazakhstan:

A) 66 million hectares.
B) 76 million hectares.

C) 50 million hectares.
D) 36 million hectares.
E) 100 million hectares.

21. Monitoring carried out at the international level:

A) National.
B) Local.
C) Regional.
D) Global.
E) Predictable.

22. international Conference The UN at the level of heads of state and government “Environment and Development” was held where and when:

A) In Stockholm in 1972.
B) In Moscow in 1982.
C) In New York in 1996.
D) In ​​Helsinki in 1975.
E) In Rio de Janeiro in 1992.

23. The composition of household wastewater includes the following:

A) Phenamins, surfactants, microorganisms.
B) Soil, sand.
C) Rainwater.
D) Hydrochloric acid, hydrogen peroxide.
E) Products of ferrous and non-ferrous metallurgy.

24. The limit of penetration of life in the biosphere in its oceanic part:

A) 3 km.
B) 100 km.

C) 15 km.
D) 200 km.

E) 11 km.

25. Sustainable development means:

A) Development of society along an exponential curve.
B) Satisfying the life needs of the present generation without depriving future generations of such opportunities.
C) Demographic population growth.
D) Creation of a free society.
E) Satisfying your needs.

Option 9

1. Classification of anthropogenic pollution:

A) Physical pollution.
B) Related to human activities.
C) Chemical pollution.
D) Biological and microbiological.
E) Pollution from mechanical substances.

2. Abiotic factor:

3. Organisms that synthesize organic substances from inorganic substances in the process of photosynthesis or chemosynthesis are called:

A) Phytocenoses

B) Heterotrophs

C) Endemics

D) Biocenoses

E) Autotrophs

4. Air shell of the earth:

A) Hydrosphere.
B) Lithosphere.
C) Biosphere.
D) Atmosphere.
E) Noosphere.

5. The doctrine of the noosphere was developed by:

A) Harper.
B) Vernadsky.
C) Dokuchaev.
D) Odum.
E) Darwin.

6. Pollution of the natural environment by living organisms that cause various diseases in humans is called:

A) Radioactive.
B) Physical.
C) Biological.
D) Chemical.
E) Chronic.

7. A reserve created to preserve the saiga population:

A) Naurzumsky.
B) Almaty.
C) Alakolsky.
D) Barsakelmessky.
E) Markakolsky.

8. Number of national parks in Kazakhstan:

A) 15
B) 7
C) 1
D) 12
E) 6

9. The terms “ecology” and “benthos” were proposed by:

A) Haeckel.E.
B) Shelford.V.
C) Lindeman.R.
D) Humboldt.A.
E) Darwin.Ch.

10. What is the positive role of ultraviolet rays:

A) Participation in vitamin synthesis in animals.

B) Increase the total amount of light.
C) Role in the energy cycle.

D) Participation in photosynthesis.
E) Protection of the ozone layer.

11. Organisms capable of withstanding significant temperature fluctuations:

A) Stenobionts.
B) Poikilohydric.
C) Eurythermic.
D) Oxybionts.
E) Stenothermic.

12. The rate of population growth is:

A) Periodic changes in the number of individuals.
B) Changes in population size.
C) Change in population size per unit time.
D) Seasonal changes in species abundance.
E) Random changes in the number of individuals.

13. Deviation of population size from its average value:

A) Oscillation.
B) Fluctuation.
C) Introduction.
D) Migration.
E) Adaptation.

14. Population fluctuations:

A) Introduction.
B) Emigration.
C) Fluctuation.
D) Oscillation.
E) Migration.

15. By type of nutrition, green plants and photosynthetic bacteria are:

A) Heterotrophs.
B) Autotrophs.
C) Decomposers.
D) Mixotrophs.
E) Saprophages.

16. What type of ecosystem does standing water belong to:

A) Lentic type.
B) Wetlands.
C) Lotic type.
D) Lakes.
E) Ponds.

17. Thickness of the ozone layer:

A) 3mm.
B) 10 km.
C) 10m.
D) 2-3 km.
E) 2-3m.

18. The planet’s water resources consist of:

A) Glaciers, atmospheric humidity, rivers, groundwater.
B) Underground springs, seas, oceans, rivers, reservoirs.
C) Oceans, rivers, reservoirs, moisture.
D) Surface, underground, glaciers, atmospheric and soil moisture.
E) Humidity of the earth, surface waters, rivers.

19. A set of measures aimed at restoring disturbed areas:

A) Stratification.
B) Stagnation.
C) Recreation.
D) Reclamation.
E) Monitoring.

20. Deflation is:

A) Air pollution.
B) Streak soil erosion.
C) Water soil erosion.
D) Groundwater pollution.
E) Wind soil erosion.

21. Physico-chemical wastewater treatment processes:

A) Neutralization and reagent cleaning.
B) Flotation and extraction.
C) Natural cleaning.
D) Oxidation and extraction.

E) Sedimentation and filtration.

A) Small swan.
B) Four-lane runner.
C) Red wolf, European mink, Kyzylkum argali.
D) Muskrat, wild ass, yellow heron.
E) Snow leopard, lynx, bat.

23. The main methods of cleaning the atmosphere from dust:

A) Flotation.
B) Object and regional.
C) Dry and wet.
D) Gravitational and inertial.
E) Mechanical and electrical.

24. What constitutes natural conditions is:

A) Suitability of the nature of use for local conditions.
B) The potential capacity of the natural system.
C) Suitability of methods of use for local conditions.
D) The ability to move from one state to another.
E) A set of objects, phenomena and factors of the natural environment.

25. How many pollutants are emitted into the environment per year by industrial enterprises in the East Kazakhstan region:

A) 410 thousand tons.
B) More than 2 million tons.
C) 1960 thousand tons.
D) 2230 thousand tons
E) 360 thousand tons.

Option 10

1. Who first introduced the word “ecology”:

A) V. Sukachev.
B) J. Liebig.
C) E. Haeckel.
D) Jean-Jacques-Rousseau.
E) V.Vernadsky.

2. Founder of the population approach in ecology:

A) Lamarck J.
B) Haeckel E.

C) Lavoisier A.

D) Linnaeus K.

E) Malthus T.

3. Sources of soil pollution:

A) Toxic substances.
B) Pesticides.
C) Freons.
D) Carcinogenic substances.
E) Substances from any source of pollution.

4. What formula is used to determine population mortality:

A) C=∆N\∆t
B) R=4PR
C) S=V*t
D) A=t*S
E) C=∆N\N∆t

5. Inexhaustible natural resources include:

A) Flora.
B) Underground resources.
C) Soil.
D) Space, climate, water.
E) Fauna.

6. What undesirable effects do greenhouse gases have on the atmosphere?

A) Promote long-term wave thermal radiation emitted by the earth's surface.
B) Reduce visibility in the atmosphere.
C) They destroy the ozone layer.
D) Cause cancer.
E) They delay thermal radiation.

7. The Law “On Environmental Protection” of the Republic of Kazakhstan was adopted:

A) In 1994
B) In 1997
C) In 2001
D) In ​​1989
E) In 1990

8. The initiator of the organization of the environmental movement “Nevada-Semey” was:

A) Segizbaev T.
B) Suleimenov O.
C) Solzhenitsyn V.
D) Asylbekov A.
E) Nurkadilov Z.

9. Environmental factors are divided into:

A) Abiotic, biotic, anthropogenic.
B) Terrestrial, soil.
C) Abiotic, biotic.
D) Physical, chemical, biological.
E) Climatic, space.

10. Light-loving plants:

A) Psammophytes.
B) Heliophytes.
C) Xerophytes.
D) Halophytes.
E) Sciophytes.

11. Find abiotic factors:

A) Microbiogenic.

B) Photogenic.
C) Zootic.
D) Orographic.
E) Anthropogenic.

12. Spatial structure in the plant part of the biocenosis:

A) Cyclicality.
B) Tiering.
C) Mosaic.
D) Hierarchy.
E) Adaptation.

13. What type of ecosystems do flowing waters belong to?

A) Lakes.
B) Tape type.
C) Lotic type.
D) Ocean.
E) Wetlands.

14. What is the name of the animal community?

A) Zoocenosis.
B) Mycocenosis.
C) Biocenosis.
D) Microbiocenosis.
E) Biogecoenosis.

15. The limit of penetration of life in the hydrosphere:

A) 11km.
B) 4 km.
C) 15km.
D) 30m.
E) 27-25km.

16. 80% of the air is concentrated in:

A) Ionosphere.
B) Stratosphere.
C) Troposphere.
D) Mesosphere.
E) Exosphere.

17. Xenobiotic is:

A) Type of microfertilizer used in agriculture.
B) A substance useful for organisms.
C) A substance foreign to organisms.
D) Substance that pollutes the environment.
E) Component of vehicle exhaust gases.

18. Unified measure of water use in populated areas:

A) M\min.
B) L\year.
C) M/day.
D) M\year.
E) L\day.

19. What is the electrochemical method of wastewater treatment based on:

A) Lime milk.
B) Electric current.
C) Anion and cation exchangers.
D) Cation exchangers.
E) Anion exchangers.

20. In what year was the term monitoring introduced?

A) 1994.
B) 1991.
C) 1965.
D) 1972.
E) 1984.

21. The natural monument “Goose Flight” is located:

A) In the Mangistau region.
B) In Kostanay region.
C) In the East Kazakhstan region.
D) In ​​Pavlodar region.
E) In the Karaganda region.

22. Species of plants and animals belonging to the second category of the Red Book:

A) Restored species.
B) Unknown species.
C) Rare species.
D) Declining species.
E) Endangered species.

23. Dispersal of plants with the help of animals:

A) Zoochoria.
B) Phoresia.
C) Anemochory.
D) Succession.
E) Hydrochoria.

24. Greenhouse gases contribute to the retention of:

A) Ultraviolet rays.
B) Physiologically active radiation.
C) Sun rays.
D) Infrared rays.
E) Long-wave thermal radiation.

25. Species of animals of the Republic of Kazakhstan included in the International Red Book:

A) Kulan, cheetah, white crane, pink flamingo, pelican.
B) Small gopher, gray wolf.
C) Lizard, fire-bellied toad, tiger.
D) Bat, whooper swan.
E) Mountain goat, argali.

CORRECT ANSWER CODES

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1

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E

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A

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D

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D

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2

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A

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D

3

E

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WITH

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A

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A

D

D

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A

A

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4

E

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D

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D

D

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D

D

A

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5

WITH

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D

IN

A

A

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D

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D

D

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6

D

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D

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A

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7

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8

A

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A

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E

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D

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D

D

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D

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9

IN

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D

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A

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A

D

D

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10

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D

IN

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A

A

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D

D

D

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A